Which construction is being shown in the diagram?

Mathematics

1 answer:

11Alexandr11 [23.1K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Correct answer is option D) Construct the bisector of an angle.

Step-by-step explanation:

Angle bisector of an angle is a line that divides the angle in two equal parts.

A Line BD is called the angle bisector of $\angle ABC$ if

$\angle ABD = \angle CBD$

Please refer to image attached.

As per the question image, if the line PW is joined it will be the angle bisector of $\angle QPR$ .

Steps of construction of angle bisector:

1. Draw the angle QPR.

2. Open compass and make an arc that will cut the two lines on points Q and R respectively as shown in question figure.

3. With the same compass opening, put the compass on Q and make an arc in the area between $\angle QPR$ .

4. Draw an arc keeping the compass on R to cut the previous arc on point W.

Line joining the points P and W is the angle bisector of $\angle QPR$ .

So, Correct answer is option D) Construct the bisector of an angle.

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Answer:

V = (About) 22.2, Graph = First graph/Graph in the attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

Remember that in all these cases, we have a specified method to use, the washer method, disk method, and the cylindrical shell method. Keep in mind that the washer and disk method are one in the same, but I feel that the disk method is better as it avoids splitting the integral into two, and rewriting the curves. Here we will go with the disk method.

$\mathrm{V\:=\:\pi \int _a^b\left(r\right)^2dy\:},\\\mathrm{V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy}$

The plus 1 in '1 + 2/x' is shifting this graph up from where it is rotating, but the negative 1 is subtracting the area between the y-axis and the shaded region, so that when it's flipped around, it becomes a washer.

$V\:=\:\int _1^3\:\pi \left[\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1\right]dy,\\\\\mathrm{Take\:the\:constant\:out}:\quad \int a\cdot f\left(x\right)dx=a\cdot \int f\left(x\right)dx\\=\pi \cdot \int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2-1dy\\\\\mathrm{Apply\:the\:Sum\:Rule}:\quad \int f\left(x\right)\pm g\left(x\right)dx=\int f\left(x\right)dx\pm \int g\left(x\right)dx\\= \pi \left(\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy-\int _1^31dy\right)\\\\$

$\int _1^3\left(1+\frac{2}{y}\right)^2dy=4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}, \int _1^31dy=2\\\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{14}{3}-2\right)\\=> \pi \left(4\ln \left(3\right)+\frac{8}{3}\right)$

Our exact solution will be V = π(4In(3) + 8/3). In decimal form it will be about 22.2 however. Try both solution if you like, but it would be better to use 22.2. Your graph will just be a plot under the curve y = 2/x, the first graph.