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xz_007 [3.2K]
2 years ago
11

An investor borrows an amount at an annual effective interest rate of 5% and will repay all interest and principal in a lump sum

at the end of 10 years. She uses the amount borrowed to purchase a 1000 par value 10-year bond with 8% semiannual coupons bought to yield 6% convertible semiannually. All coupon payments are reinvested at a nominal rate of 4% convertible semiannually. Calculate the net gain to the investor at the end of 10 years after the loan is repaid.
a. 116
b.106
c. 111
d. 101
Business
1 answer:
Ghella [55]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

d. 101

Explanation:

first we must determine the amount of the loan:

PV of face value = $1,000 / (1 + 3%)²⁰ = $553.68

PV of coupon payments = $40 x 14.877 (PV annuity factor, 3%, 20 periods) = $595.08

Loan amount = $1,148.76

Future value of the loan = $1,148.76 x (1 + 5%)¹⁰ = $1,871.21

You will receive 20 coupon payments of $40 each, which will be reinvested at 2% semiannual rate. You will also receive $1,000 corresponding to the face value of the bond.

Future value of the coupon payments = $40 x 24.297 (FV annuity factor, 2%, 20 periods)] = $971.88

Total money received at the end of the 10 year period = $971.88 + $1,000 = $1,971.88

Gain = $1,971.88 - $1,871.21 = $100.67 ≈ $101

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bezimeni [28]

Answer:

Total Cost of the Job    $

Direct materials             480

Direct labour                  150

Additional labour           100

Applied overhead          600

Total cost                        1,330

The total amount to be transferred to finished goods inventory in November is $1,330.                                

Explanation:

The total cost of the job  is the total of direct material, direct labour, additional labour and manufacturing overhead applied. The additional labour cost is considered because it is required to complete the job.

7 0
3 years ago
Bailey Furniture Company has prepared the following flexible budget for April and is in the process of interpreting the variance
Grace [21]

Answer:

See notes below

Explanation:

Rate variance

The rate variance is the  the difference between the standard labor cost of the actual hours paid for and the actual cost.

<em>Possible reasons:</em>

An increase in wage rate

Skilled workers were as against using the unskilled workers planned for

Efficiency variance

Labour efficiency variance is the difference between the actual time taken to achieve a given production output less the standard hours allowed for same multiplied by the standard labour rate

<em>Possible reasons:</em>

The use of skilled workers who worked faster than the unskilled workers planed for

The workers were trained making them more efficient in saving time

3 0
3 years ago
The cost, in dollars, to produce x designer dog leashes is C ( x ) = 8 x + 3 , and the price-demand function, in dollars per lea
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

Profit maximising price = 48

Explanation:

Total Cost : C (x) = 8x + 3

Demand Curve : p (x) = 88 − 2x

Total Revenue = p (x). x  =  x (88 - 2x) = 88x - 2x^2

Profit maximisation is where Marginal Cost (MC) = Marginal Revenue (MR)

MC = d TC / d Q  =   d (8x + 3) / d x = 8

MR = d TR / d Q = d (88x - 2x^2) / d x = 88 - 4x

Equating MR & MC ,

88 - 4x = 8  , 88 - 8 = 4x

x = 80 / 4 , x = 20

Putting value in demand curve,

p = 88 - 2x = 88 - 2 (20) = 88 - 40

p = 48

3 0
3 years ago
"Stock R has a beta of 1.5, Stock S has a beta of 0.75, the required return on an average stock is 10%, and the risk-free rate o
Kaylis [27]

Answer:

4.5%

Explanation:

Stock R (Beta) = 1.5

Stock S  (Beta) = 0.75

Expected rate of return on an average stock (Rm)= 10%

Risk free rate (Rf) = 4%

Required Return (Re) = Rf +(Rm-Rf) B

Required Return = 0.04 + (0.10-0.04) B

Required Return = 0.04 + 0.06B

Stock R = 0.04 + (0.06 * 1.50)

Stock R = 0.04 + 0.09

Stock R = 0.13

Stock R = 13%

Stock S = 0.04 + (0.06 * 0.75)

Stock S = 0.04 + 0.045

Stock S = 0.085

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Here, the more risky stock is R and less risky stock is S. Since, R has more beta than the Stock S.

= 13% - 8.5%

= 4.5%

7 0
2 years ago
According to, "Ditching the Dollar," having multiple reserve currencies to choose from is healthy because:
posledela

Answer: D. If one country creates all the reserves it can prevent other countries from trading.

Explanation:

<em>Ditching the Dollar</em> refers to a movement by nations to reduce the dependence on the US. dollar for transactions.

The USD is the major currency for trade around the world with it accounting for the currency of use in more than 50% of the entire World trade. This was due to the Bretton Woods Agreement and System which at the time pegged the USD to gold and other currencies at certain value to the USD.

The influence the USD gained that day continues today. Countries however are increasing becoming fed up by the United States using the Dollar to impose trade restrictions and sanctions on countries and then requiring everyone to fall in line because trades are mostly done in the currency controlled by the US, the USD.

For instance, when sanctions were imposed on Iran, the European Union looked for alternative means of payment for Iranian oil.

Ditching the Dollar therefore argues that having multiple reserve currencies to choose from is healthy because one country will not be able to control world trade as the US has.

8 0
3 years ago
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