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valkas [14]
2 years ago
11

Please help me answer this question ASAP! If you give me a stupid answer I will report your account

Mathematics
1 answer:
VladimirAG [237]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

It is linear.

We can see the right side are multiples of 3. So the equation so the table is:

c = 3h

When h = 5   c = 15

c = 3h

c = 3*5

c = 15

When h = 12   c = 36

c = 3h

c = 3*12

c = 36

The constant rate of change between cost and time is 3.

Another way to solve is check for rate of change using 2 points on the chart.

Let's choose h = 5 c = 15      and h = 12 c = 36

The normal equation for rate of change is:

m = \frac{y_{2} -y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}  in this case we have h and c so:

\frac{c_{2} -c_{1}}{h_{2}-h_{1}}

h₁ = 5       h₂ = 12

c₁ = 15      c₂ = 36

So:

\frac{c_{2} -c_{1}}{h_{2}-h_{1}} = \frac{36 -15}{12-5} = \frac{21}{7} = \frac{3}{1} =3

Now that we know it's 3 we use slope intercept form to find the equation.

y = mx + b        ( m = 3) and we plug in a point to find b.

y = 3x + b          h = 5 (x)      c = 15 (y)

15 = 3(5) + b     Solve for b.

15 = 15 + b        Subtract 15 from each side.

15 - 15 = 15 - 15 + b

0 = b                 b is 0 showing our equation was correct.

y = 3x   or    c = 3h

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AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

1. 0.75 cm to 1 km

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Step-by-step explanation:

we have the scale

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<u><em>Verify each case</em></u>

case 1) 0.75 cm to 1 km

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therefore

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Remember that

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1 mm=0.1 cm

we have

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Remember that

1 cm= 10 mm  -----> 1 mm=0.1 cm

1 km=1,000 m ----> 1 m=0.001 km

we have

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0.75\frac{cm}{km}=0.75\frac{cm}{km}

therefore

The scale is equivalent to the given value

case 4) 1 inch to 7.62 km

Remember that

1 in= 2.54 cm

we have

\frac{1}{7.62}\frac{in}{km}=\frac{2.54}{7.62}\frac{cm}{km}=0.33\frac{cm}{km}

0.33\frac{cm}{km} \neq 0.75\frac{cm}{km}

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Let s = the number of hours that Samantha worked

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1 year ago
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Answer:

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