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ki77a [65]
3 years ago
14

A financial analyst is attempting to assess the future dividend policy of Environmental Systems by examining its life cycle. She

anticipates no payout of earnings in the form of cash dividends during the development stage (I). During the growth stage (II), she anticipates 13 percent of earnings will be distributed as dividends. As the firm progresses to the expansion stage (III), the payout ratio will go up to 31 percent and eventually reach 56 percent during the maturity stage (IV).a. Assuming earnings per share will be as follows during each of the four stages, indicate the cash dividend per share (if any) during each stage. (Leave no cells blank - be certain to enter "0" wherever required. Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answers to 2 decimal places.) Stage I $ .30Stage II 1.95Stage III 2.80Stage IV 3.40b. Assume in Stage IV that an investor owns 290 shares and is in a 15 percent tax bracket. What will be the investor’s aftertax income from the cash dividend? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places.)c. In what two stages is the firm most likely to utilize stock dividends or stock splits? (Select two answers. Single click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer.)
Business
1 answer:
GrogVix [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Consider the following calculations

Explanation:

A. Dividend per Share = Dividend Payout Ratio * Earnings Per Share

Putting the values given to calculate dividend per share we get,

Stages DPS = Payout Ratio * EPS DPS

Stage 1 =0.00*$0.30                         $0

Stage 2 = 0.13*1.95                         $0.25

Stage 3 =0.31 * $ 2.80                         $0.868

Stage 4 = 0.56*$3.40                         $1.90

b. Calculation of Investors After Tax Income from Cash Dividend:-

Cash Dividend = Number of Shares * DPS in Stage IV

= 290 * $ 1.90

= $552.16

After Tax Income = DIvidend ( 1 - Tax Rate)

= $ 552.16 ( 1- 0.15)

= $ 469.34

C:- In Stage II and Stage III for Growth & Expansion respectively, the firm is likely to utilise stock dividend or stock split.

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Tatiana [17]

Answer:

3.63yrs

Explanation:

CExplanation: C) Investment / Annual cash flows$2,900,000 / 800,000 = 3.63 yrs

4 0
3 years ago
You are in talks to settle a potential lawsuit. The defendant has offered to make annual payments of $35,000, $39,000, $80,000,
storchak [24]

Answer:

The value of the settlement today =  $231,897.79  

Explanation:

The value of the settlement today is the sum of the present value (PV) of cash inflows discounted at the discount rate of 5.7 %.

Year                                                   PV

1              35,000 × 1.057^(-1)   = 33112.58

2                39,000× 1.057^(-2) = 34907.16

3.               80,000× 1.057^(-3)  = 67743.09

4                 120,000 × 1.057^(-4) =96134.94

The Pv of the total cash in flow =33,112.58  +  34,907.17  +  67,743.09  +  96,134.95  =  231,897.79  

The value of the settlement today =  $231,897.79  

7 0
2 years ago
A building is an example of a _____ because it is a cost that does not change as output changes. fixed cost variable cost market
Anna11 [10]
The answer to this question is "Fixed Cost." this is because it doesn't change so it's fixed on one price!
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Harwood Company uses a job-order costing system. Overhead costs are applied to jobs on the basis of machine-hours. At the beginn
NNADVOKAT [17]

Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead:

Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead refers to the balance in the manufacturing overhead control account after the actual overhead costs that were incurred and the applied overhead for the period has been recorded

1 .The appleid overhead is the predetermined rate of $2.40 per machine hour multiplied by the actual number of machine hours (75,000), so it is $180,000.

The applied overhead is debited to work-in-process inventory and credited to the manufacturing overhead account.

2. The underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is the difference between the actual and applied overhead. We can show it in the T-account like this:

3. The company estimated its total overhead cost to be $192,000 and its total machine hours to be 80,000. The actual overhead cost was $184,000 and the actual machine hours were 75,000. We can see that the main reason why the manufacturing overhead was underapplied was the fact that it worked fewer machine hours than anticipated with a proportional decrease in the manufacturing overhead costs incurred. This is normal because an element of manufacturing overhead is fixed.

To know more about overhead applied manufacturing overhead:

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3 0
1 year ago
Orion would like to go on a trip to Ireland in two years. He wants to have $3,000 for the trip, so he is planning to invest mone
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

The answer is: If Orion wants to have $3,000 in two years, he must invest $2,572.02 today

Explanation:

To determine how much money Orion has to invest today in order to have $3,000 in two years, considering he will get an 8% compound interest rate, we can use this formula:

P = FV / (1 + r)²    

Where:

  • FV = $3,000
  • r = 8%

P = $3,000 / (1 + 8%)²

P = $3,000 / 1.1664

P = $2,572.02

4 0
3 years ago
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