Answer:
3.63yrs
Explanation:
CExplanation: C) Investment / Annual cash flows$2,900,000 / 800,000 = 3.63 yrs
Answer:
The value of the settlement today = $231,897.79
Explanation:
The value of the settlement today is the sum of the present value (PV) of cash inflows discounted at the discount rate of 5.7 %.
Year PV
1 35,000 × 1.057^(-1) = 33112.58
2 39,000× 1.057^(-2) = 34907.16
3. 80,000× 1.057^(-3) = 67743.09
4 120,000 × 1.057^(-4) =96134.94
The Pv of the total cash in flow =33,112.58 + 34,907.17 + 67,743.09 + 96,134.95 = 231,897.79
The value of the settlement today = $231,897.79
The answer to this question is "Fixed Cost." this is because it doesn't change so it's fixed on one price!
Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead:
Under- or Over-Applied Manufacturing Overhead refers to the balance in the manufacturing overhead control account after the actual overhead costs that were incurred and the applied overhead for the period has been recorded
1 .The appleid overhead is the predetermined rate of $2.40 per machine hour multiplied by the actual number of machine hours (75,000), so it is $180,000.
The applied overhead is debited to work-in-process inventory and credited to the manufacturing overhead account.
2. The underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year is the difference between the actual and applied overhead. We can show it in the T-account like this:
3. The company estimated its total overhead cost to be $192,000 and its total machine hours to be 80,000. The actual overhead cost was $184,000 and the actual machine hours were 75,000. We can see that the main reason why the manufacturing overhead was underapplied was the fact that it worked fewer machine hours than anticipated with a proportional decrease in the manufacturing overhead costs incurred. This is normal because an element of manufacturing overhead is fixed.
To know more about overhead applied manufacturing overhead:
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Answer:
The answer is: If Orion wants to have $3,000 in two years, he must invest $2,572.02 today
Explanation:
To determine how much money Orion has to invest today in order to have $3,000 in two years, considering he will get an 8% compound interest rate, we can use this formula:
P = FV / (1 + r)²
Where:
P = $3,000 / (1 + 8%)²
P = $3,000 / 1.1664
P = $2,572.02