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dsp73
3 years ago
15

The following information was available for the year ended December 31, 2016:

Business
1 answer:
nexus9112 [7]3 years ago
3 0

Answer and Explanation:

The calculation is given below:

a. The debt ratio is

= Total liabilities ÷ total assets

= $148,000 ÷ $270,000

= 0.5 times

b. The debt/equity ratio is

= Debt ÷ equity

= $148,000 ÷ ($270,000 - $148,000)

= $148,000 ÷ $122,000

= 1.21 times

c. The times interest earned ratio is

= earning before interest and taxes ÷ interest expense

= $81,000 ÷ $17,000

= 4.76 times

You might be interested in
justin corp. issues 10,000 shares of $1 par value common stock for $5 per share. the journal entry to record this transaction wi
enyata [817]

The record of the issuance of the stock is debit to cash for $50,000, credit to common stock for $10,000 and credit to excess of common stock of $40,000.

<h3>How to record journal entry for the following transactions?</h3>

A. Entries of the stock

1. Account(cash)

Cash=10,000 shares at $5 per share

Cash=10,000×5=$50,000

Cash to Debit=$50,000

Credit this account=$0

2. Account (common stock)

Common stock=10,000 shares at $1 per value common stock

Common stock=10,000×1=$10,000

Credit account=$10,000

Debit this account=$0

3. Account (Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Common Stock)

Paid in capital in excess of par-common stock=50,000-10,000=$40,000

Credit this account=$40,000

Debit this account=$0

This can be written as;

Account                                                Debit ($)                         Credit ($)

Cash (10,000 shares×$5 price)           50,000  

Common Stock (10,000 shares×$1 par)                                     10,000

Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par - Common Stock                     40,000

The record of the issuance of the stock is debit to cash for $50,000, credit to common stock for $10,000 and credit to excess of common stock of $40,000.

To know more about journal entry, refer:

brainly.com/question/14098819

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
Two incinerators are being considered by a waste management company. Design A has an initial cost of $2,500,000, has annual oper
IrinaK [193]

Answer: please refer to the explanation section

Explanation:

Design A

Initial cost $2500 000

operating and maintenance cost = $800 000

Overhauls = $1250000 in 5 years

R = 5%

PV= overhaul cost/(1+r)^n + maintenance cost(1 -(1+r)^-5)/r

PV = 1250000/(1 + 0.05)^5  + 800000(1 - (1 + 0.05)^-5)/0.05

PV = 979407.71 + 3463581.34 = 4442989.05

costs to be capitalized = present value of overhaul costs = 979407. 71

Design A will be valued at = 2500000 +  979407. 71 = 347907.71

Total cost of Choosing Design A = 979407.71 + 3463581.34 + 2500000

Total cost of Choosing Design A = 6942989.05

Design B

initial cost = $5750000

Operating and Maintenance = $600000

Overhauls = $3000000 in 10 years

PV= overhaul cost/(1+r)^n + maintenance cost(1 -(1+r)^-5)/r

PV = 3000000/(1 + 0.05)^10  + 600000(1 - (1 + 0.05)^-10)/0.05

PV = 1841739.76 + 4633040.96 = 6474780.72

Cost to be capitalized = overhaul cost = 1841739.76

Design B will be value at = 1841739.76 + 5750000 = 7591739.76

Total cost of costs Design B = 1841739.76 + 5750000 + 4633040.96

Total cost of costs Design B = 12224780.72

Design B involves more costs than Design A. Present value for total cost for choosing Design B is Higher than the present value for Total costs of choosing Design A

Choose Design A

3 0
3 years ago
Duncan Company reports the following financial information before adjustments. Dr. Cr. Accounts Receivable $100,000 Allowance fo
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

  • Duncan Company estimates bad debts at   (a) 5% of accounts receivable

Dr Bad Debt Expense                             $ 3.000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3.000

  • (b) 5% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,500 debit balance.  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                            $ 6.500

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6.500

Explanation:

 

Initial Balance  

Sales Revenue (all on credit)         $ 900,000

Less: Sales Returns and Allowances $ 50,000

Estimates bad debts 5%

Dr Accounts Receivable                       $ 100,000

Cr Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $ 2,000

When the company estimates the bad debts, the journal entry is the loss to the income statement through the account Bad Debt Expense and the record in the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts as a credit to deduct from Accounts Receivable in the Balance Sheet.

The entry it's less than the estimated value of 5% because the account "Allowance for Doubtful Accounts" had a balance of $2,000 on Credit.

Duncan Company estimates bad debts at   (a) 5% of accounts receivable  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                            $ 3,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,000

The new balance on Allowance for Doubtful Accounts as Debit of $1,500 means that when the entry of the adjustment is recorded it's necessary to compensate that value to show a  debit balance of $5,000., because the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts must reflect a credit balance.

(b) 5% of accounts receivable but Allowance for Doubtful Accounts had a $1,500 debit balance.  

Dr Bad Debt Expense                            $ 6,500

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6,500

Accounts Uncollectible are those credit that the company give and there are not chances of been collected.

When the customers buy products on credits but then the company can't collect the debt, then it's necessary to write off the unpaid bill as uncollectible.

One way it's to write-off directly the bad debts at the moment decided that the credit are uncollectible, the total amount it's reported as bad debt expenses which affect negativly the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced in the same amount, less assets.

The other way it's to determine a percentage of total amount of accounts receivables as uncollectible, exist many ways to analize the accounts receivable and figure the value of uncollectible.

When the company have the percentage of uncollectible accounts the journal entry required is Bad Expenses (debit) with Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit)

At the moment of the write-off as the expenses were before recognized we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit) with Accounts Receivable (Credit), with this we are recognizing the uncollectible credit of the company.

7 0
3 years ago
The manager of the customer service division of a major consumer electric company is interested in determining whether the custo
Elanso [62]

Answer:  Stratified random sampling

Explanation:

Given : The manager of the customer service division of a major consumer electric company is interested in determining whether the customers who have purchased a Blu-ray player made by the company over the past 12 months are satisfied with their products. If there are 4 different brands of Blu-ray players made by the company.

The best sampling strategy which we can use is stratified random sampling because it is not much costly and also it induces the efficiency . We can me different strata according to the 4 brands , then we can randomly select participants for the sample.

  • Stratified random sampling is a method of probability sampling in which a researcher divides the entire population into multiple homogeneous groups known as strata and then he randomly select an sample members from each strata for research .
4 0
3 years ago
Maximum diversification benefit can be achieved if one were to form a portfolio of two stocks whose returns had a correlation co
Arlecino [84]

Answer:

-1.0

Explanation:

Diversification in a portfolio can be regarded as spreading of investments by investors so that risk can be minimized. The correlation coefficient "r" that exist between two securities allows us to know how return that's gotten from one security is related to returns from another security. For instance, it is possible for two securities within same sector to move in the same direction, i.e it is possible to be positively correlated, in this sense when price of one goes up , the other price also goes up this might not be with the same margin.

As regards negative correlation, there is movement of security returns in opposite directions, in this sense there is least relationship between the securities. Hence with r= 1 there is movement of the two stocks in opposite direction hence Maximum diversification.

It should be noted that Maximum diversification benefit can be achieved if one were to form a portfolio of two stocks whose returns had a correlation coefficient of -1.0

3 0
3 years ago
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