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GarryVolchara [31]
2 years ago
12

The width of a rectangle is 5 meters less than its length. The area is 84 square

Mathematics
1 answer:
VARVARA [1.3K]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

12 and 7 meters

Step-by-step explanation:

The area is 84 square meters and the width is 5 meters less than the length. 12 is the length and 7 is the width. 7 is 5 less than 12, and 12*7=84.

The length is 12 and the width is 7

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What is the area, in square inches, of the figure shown here?
andreev551 [17]
The area of the central rectangle = 5 * 3 = 15 ins^2

area of each triangle = 1/2*3*3 = 4.6 ins^2

Total area = 2*4.5 + 15  = 24 ins^2 (answer)
3 0
3 years ago
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When doctors prescribe medicine, they must consider how the drug’s effectiveness declines as time passes. If each hour a drug is
Dima020 [189]

Answer:

<u>The total time for the initial dose of 500 mg to reach a level of 150 mg is approximately 11 hours and 27 minutes </u>

Step-by-step explanation:

Initial dose = 500 mg

Let's calculate the effectiveness of the drug hour by hour, this way:

After 1 hour: 90% of 500 = 450 mg

After 2 hours: 90% of 450 = 405 mg

After 3 hours: 90% of 405 = 364.5 mg

After 4 hours: 90% of 364.5 = 328.05 mg

After 5 hours: 90% of 328.05 = 295.25 mg

After 6 hours: 90% of 295.25 = 265.73 mg

After 7 hours: 90% of 265.73 = 239.16 mg

After 8 hours: 90% of 239.16 = 215.24 mg

After 9 hours: 90% of 215.24 = 193.72 mg

After 10 hours: 90% of 193.72 = 174.35 mg

After 11 hours: 90% of 174.35 = 156.92 mg

After 12 hours: 90% of 156.92 = 141.23 mg

Difference between 11 and 12 hours: 156.92 - 141.23 = 15.7 mg

Difference per minute between 11 and 12 hours: 15.7/60 = 0.262 mg

Time to reach a level of 150 mg in minutes after 11 hours = (156.92-150)/0.262

Time to reach a level of 150 mg in minutes after 11 hours = 26.4

<u>The total time for the initial dose of 500 mg to reach a level of 150 mg is approximately 11 hours and 27 minutes </u>

4 0
3 years ago
What is the solution to the equation 1/4 X -1/8 equals 7/8+1/2 X?
vodomira [7]

Answer:

x=-4

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4x-1/8=7/8+1/2x

2x-1=7+4x

2x-4x=7+1

-2x+8

7 0
3 years ago
Find the selling price of the following item.<br> Original price of an iPod: $350<br> Discount 20%
Nata [24]

Answer: 280 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

if the IPOD is 350,

10% out of 350 is 350/10=35

20% is 35*2=70

the price will be 350-70=280

4 0
2 years ago
In one jar, I have two balls labelled 1 and 2 respectively. In a second jar, I have three balls labelled 0, 1 and 2 respectively
PolarNik [594]

Step-by-step explanation:

this is a kind of trick question, actually.

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to be precise, we can have only

3⁰ = 1

3¹ = 3

3² = 9

3⁴ = 81

due to the possible combinations of drawn numbers (e.g. 3 cannot be created by a multiplication of 0s, 1s and 2s).

so, mostly, these results cannot be exact factors of 1024.

1024 cannot be divided by 3, nor by 9 nor by 81.

but 1024 is a multiple of 1 (as is every number).

so, we are looking at the probability to get 0 as multiplication result of the numbers on the 2 drawn balls.

the only possibilities are

1 and 0

2 and 0

out of in total 6 (2×3) different outcomes

1 and 0

1 and 1

1 and 2

2 and 0

2 and 1

2 and 2

the probability of this "0" event is again

number of desired outcomes / number of possible outcomes = 2/6 = 1/3

6 0
2 years ago
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