Answer: SEE EXPLANATION
Explanation:
Given the following ;
Values depending on Success
$150M, $135M, $95M, $80M
Risk free rate = 5% = 0.05
Pervebtage to be lost in case of bankruptcy = 25% = 0.25
A.) 0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + 95 + 80) ÷ 1.05] = $109.52 million
Assume a zero-coupon debt with a $100million face value
B.) 0.25 × [( 100 + 100 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $78.87 million
C.) Yield to maturity (YTM)
(100M÷78.87M) - 1
1.2679 - 1 = 0.2679 = 26.79%
Expected return = 5%
D.) Equity value
0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $99.11 million
E.) share if no debt is issued
109.52 ÷ 10 = 10.95 per share
F.) Share price if debt of $100M is issued
99.11 ÷ 10 = 9.91 per share
The price differs because bankruptcy cost will Lower the share price.
Answer:
According to fisher equation
(1+nominal Interest rate)=(1+real interest rate)(1+inflation)
1) So 1.17=(1+R)(1.13)
1+R=1.17/1.13
R=1.035-1
R=0.0353
Real interest rate = 3.53 percent
2) (1+NIR)= 1.03*1.04
1+ NIR= 1.072
NIR= 0.072
Nominal interest rate = 7.2 percent
A lender prefers a higher real interest rate as he will earn more money on the amount he has lend if the real interest rate is higher.
A borrower will prefer a lower real interest rate as he will have to pay lower interest payments on an amount if the real interest rate is lower.
Explanation:
Answer:
Discount on bonds issuance = $15750
Explanation:
A bond is issued at a discount when the issue price of the bond is less than the face value of the bond. This usually happens when the coupon rate paid by the bond is less than the market interest rate. To calculate the amount of discount on bonds issuance, we simply deduct the issue price from the face value of the bond. Thus,
Discount on Bonds = Face value - Issue price
As we know the face value of the bonds is $700000 and the issue price is $684250, we can calculate the discount on issuance to be,
Discount on bonds issuance = 700000 - 684250
Discount on bonds issuance = $15750
Answer:
The product cost for 24,500 units is $497,350.
Explanation:
The reason is that the the product cost always includes all the variable production cost and specific fixed production cost. In this scenario, direct material cost, direct labor cost, variable manufacturing overhead cost are variable production cost whereas the fixed manufacturing cost is specific fixed production cost which will form part of product cost. The remainder of the cost left is period cost.
Direct materials (24,500 * $7.7 per unit) $188,650
Direct labor (24,500 * $4.7 per unit) $115,150
Variable manufacturing overhead (24,500 * $2.2 per unit) $53,900
Fixed manufacturing overhead (24,500 * $5.7 per unit) <u>$139,650 </u>
Total product costs $497,350
Answer:
Price of stock = $49.5
Explanation:
<em>The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return. </em>
If dividend is expected to grow at a given rate , the value of a share is calculated using the formula below:
Price of stock=Do (1+g)/(k-g)
Do - dividend in the following year, K- requited rate of return , g- growth rate
DATA:
D0- 2.7
g- 10%
K- 16%
Price of stock = ( 2.7×1.1)/(0.16-0.1) = 49.5
Price of stock = $49.5
