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stepladder [879]
3 years ago
13

Help pleaseeeeeeee!!

History
1 answer:
ki77a [65]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

No, a citizen should not have to own property in order to vote because it is unfair towards those citizens that want to vote but can't because they don't own land.

Explanation:

The founders wrestled with these questions. They wondered about the rights of minorities. In their day, that meant worrying if the rights of property owners would be overrun by the votes of those who did not own land.

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