Answer:
$165,000
Explanation:
The computation of the annual net cash flow is shown below:
But before that first we have to find the depreciation expense which is
= (Initial cost - Salvage Value) ÷ estimated life
= ($400,000 - $75,000) ÷ 5 years
= $65,000
Now the annual net cash flow is
= Depreciation expense + Net Income
= $65,000 + $100,000
= $165,000
We simply added the depreciation expense and the net income so that the annual net cash flow could come
Based on the real GDP growth rate, the velocity of circulation, and the quantity of money, the long run inflation rate will be 0%.
<h3>What is the long-run inflation rate?</h3>
This can be found using the Quantity theory of money:
Money supply x Velocity of circulation = Price level x Real GDP
Can also be written as:
% change in M + % change in V = % change in P + % change in Y
Solving gives:
3% + 0 = P + 3%
P = 3% - 3%
= 0%
The price level is to increase by 0% which means that inflation is 0%.
Find out more on the Quantity theory of money at brainly.com/question/26370040.
Answer:
a.mechanistic
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that it seems that Fine Lines Inc. is using a mechanistic structure. This type of structure, also known as a bureaucratic structure, is a structure based on a single formal and centralized network where authority comes from the top-level managers who make most of the decisions.
Answer:
yield to maturity = 7.06%
Explanation:
yield to maturity (YTM) is calculated using the following formula:
YTM = {C + [(FV - PV) / n]} / [(FV + PV) / 2]
- FV = $2,000
- PV = $1,902.14
- C = $2,000 x 6.48% x 1/2 = $64.80
- n = 12 x 2 = 24
YTM = {64.80 + [(2,000 - 1,902.14) / 24]} / [(2,000 + 1,902.14) / 2] = (64.80 + 4.0775) / 1,951.07 = 0.0353 or 3.53% semianually or 7.06% annually
Since the bond sells at a discount, its yield to maturity will be higher than the coupon rate.
Answer:
The expected price after 1 year would be$55.5
Explanation:
According to the given data,
Price of the stock (Po) = $50
Dividend after 1year (D1) = $2
Equity cost of capital (KE) =15%
The formula for calculating the price after 1 year i.e.,(P1 ) is
Po = (D1 + P1 )/ 1+KE $50= ($2 + P1) / (1+0.15)
P1 = [$50(1.15)] - $2 = $55.5
