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nexus9112 [7]
3 years ago
5

What are the stages of asthma? Which is worse?

Mathematics
2 answers:
777dan777 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

bop

Step-by-step explanation:

Kruka [31]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Mild Intermittent Asthma – No more than 2 Symptoms per week, no problems in between attacks which only last a few hours to at most a few days, less than 2 nighttime episodes per month.

Mild Persistent Asthma – Symptoms happen at least 2 a week but not more than once a day.

Moderate Persistent Asthma – There are symptoms every day and because of that you have to use rescue medication every day as well.

Severe Persistent Asthma – You can’t do that much physical activity and always have to carry around and often use a rescue device.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Analyze the graph. Determine what, if any, association there is. Explain.
ss7ja [257]

answer with explanation:

From the scatter plot we may observe that the data points follow a parabolic path.Hence, the association between the points is non-linear also, the data points follow a quadratic association.

Also, when we make a quadratic curve around these data points we see that all of the data points will be closely related to the curve.

Hence, there is a strong association between the data points.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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rewona [7]
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7 0
3 years ago
I can’t figure this out !
earnstyle [38]

Answer:

The answer would be A

Step-by-step explanation:

0 degrees Celsius is equal to 32 degrees Fahrenheit

3 0
4 years ago
Consider a bettering game where you bet $10 and have a probability of 0.45 of getting $20 back ($10 more than you started with)
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

(a)

f(x) = P(X=x) = \begin{Bmatrix} 0.45 \,\,\, \text{for}  \,\,\, x = 10 \\ 0.55 \,\,\, \text{for}  \,\,\, x = -10 \end{matrix}

(b)

-1

(c)

30

Step-by-step explanation:

(a)

Your random variable will have two possible values, 30 and 0, one of them with a probability of 0.45 and the other one with a probability of 0.55. Therefore it looks like this.

f(x) = P(X=x) = \begin{Bmatrix} 0.45 \,\,\, \text{for}  \,\,\, x = 10 \\ 0.55 \,\,\, \text{for}  \,\,\, x = -10 \end{matrix}

(b)

The expected value of this PMF would be

E[X] = -10*0.55+10*0.45= -1 therefore on average you will have a dollar less.

(c)

For this one, if you play 20 times and your initial amount is 50$ then you have to compute the following expectation.

E[50+20*X] = 50+20*E[X] = 50-20 = 30

7 0
3 years ago
Can someone please help me
ryzh [129]

Answer:

I believe I just answered this :) Also, this does not have the pie chart in the picture.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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