Answer: by cleaning software from inside
Answer:
Raw material purchases (in pounds) 20,275
Explanation:
The computation of the purchase of raw material made for February month is shown below:
Production in Units 20,600
Multiplied by Raw material needed per unit (in pounds) 1
Total raw material required (in pounds) 20,600
Add: closing Inventory (25% of 19300 pounds) 4,825
Less: Opening Inventory (25% of 20600 pounds) 5,150
Raw material purchases (in pounds) 20,275
Total assets 44900
Less: Liablities 14,550
Total Owner's equity 30,350
Less: Owner's capital 30,670
Add: Drawings 7,500
Less: Revenues 8,850
Expense 1,670
Assets =Liabilities +Owner's-Drawings+Revenues-Expense capital
44,900 = 14,550 + 30,670- 7,500 + 8,850 - 1,670
2. Jacob states a profit of $7,180
Net Income = Revenues – Expenses
= 8850–1670 = 7180
- Equipment, real estate, raw materials, and inventories are examples of tangible assets. Intangible assets include things like royalties, patents, and other intellectual property.
- The amount earned by an individual or corporation after costs, allowances, and taxes is referred to as net income. Net income in company is the amount that remains after all costs, such as salaries and wages, the cost of goods or raw materials, and taxes, have been paid.
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Answer:
The correct answer the following question is option A) .
Explanation:
In simple words a workforce can be defined as the total number of people or employees who are working for someone or they are on employers payroll . This will include the whole population of the country who are currently working and also the people who are currently unemployed but are looking for a job. So as per the definition we know, the correct option would be A) where workforce would consists of employees, volunteers etc, whose conduct in the performance of work covered entity or business associate, is under direct control of such entities , whether or not they are paid by such entities.
Answer:
Case 1 = $9,420
Case 2 = 0
Explanation:
Determining the amount of impairment loss is given below:-
Case 1
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= $41,640 - $32,220
= $9,420
Case 2
Impairment loss = Amortized cost - Fair value
= 91,800 - $102,220
= 0
Since, the fair value is higher than Amortized cost so the value of Impairment loss in case 2 is 0.
