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tresset_1 [31]
3 years ago
12

Present Value of Ordinary Annuity Period/Rate 5% 6% 7% 8% 9% 10 7.7217 7.3601 7.0236 6.7101 6.4177 11 8.3064 7.8869 7.4987 7.139

0 6.8052 12 8.8633 8.3838 7.9427 7.5361 7.1607 13 9.3936 8.8527 8.3577 7.9038 7.4869 Knowledge Check 01 Clean Tel, Inc. is considering investing in an 11-year project with annual cash inflows of $1,000,000. These cash inflows have an initial investment of $7,139,000. At what discount rate would this present value be the same as the initial investment
Business
1 answer:
klasskru [66]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The discount rate of 8% for 11 year period provides the present value of annual cash flows to be equal to the initial investment.

Explanation:

Using the table of present value of annuity provided, we can check the rate and time period which is return the present value of cash flows from the project to be equal to initial Investment.

We are told that the Project's life is expected to be 11 Years. Thus using the 11 year period from the table we can see the following rates,

<u>11 Year Period</u>

Rate = 5%  ,  Annuity Factor = 8.3064  

Rate = 6%  ,  Annuity Factor = 7.8869

Rate = 7%  ,  Annuity Factor = 7.4987

Rate = 8%  ,  Annuity Factor = 7.1390

Rate = 9%  ,  Annuity Factor =  6.8052

We know that the annual cash flows from the project is $1,000,000 and we know the Initial Outlay is $7,139,000.

Multiplying the annual cash flow from the above annuity factors for each rate we can see which rate provides the present value of annual cash flows to be equal to initial outlay.

Rate = 5%  ,  Present value = 8.3064 *  1000000    = $8,306,400  

Rate = 6%  ,  Annuity Factor = 7.8869 *  1000000    = $7,886,900

Rate = 7%  ,  Annuity Factor = 7.4987 *  1000000    = $7,498,700

Rate = 8%  ,  Annuity Factor = 7.1390 *  1000000    = $7,139,000

Rate = 9%  ,  Annuity Factor =  6.8052 *  1000000    = $6,805,200

From the above calculation we can see that the rate of 8% provides the present value of annual cash flows to be equal to the initial investment.

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Answer: The problem in outsourcing from low-cost country:

It is seeking goods and services beyond the border of a region. It is a process where organizations look for the most cost-effective place globally to manufacture their goods. Most organizations choose a global sourcing strategy as the cost is using lower abroad.

Explanation:

Outsourcing from low-cost countries a move by the company to cut costs as they have a huge presence of labor. It will allow them to concentrate on their core activities. But, there are some problems outsourcing from low-cost countries. Some are :

1. Sometimes the outsourcing does not provide the expected cost savings.

There might be new conflict and problem arising from different sources

2. There might be legal barriers present between the two different nations involved in outsourcing.

7 0
3 years ago
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<span>C.K. Prahalad was a teacher at the University of Michigan and very influential business thinker.</span><span>
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3 years ago
On December 31, 2020, Marin Company borrowed $67,653 from Paris Bank, signing a 5-year, $114,000 zero-interest-bearing note. The
igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

Journal Entries

December 31, 2020

Dr. Note Receivables $114,000

Cr. Discount on bond $46,347

Cr. Cash $67,653

December 31, 2020

Dr. Impairment loss $20,839

Cr. Allowance for Impairment $20,839

Explanation:

Calculate the discount on the bond as follow

Discount on the bond = Face value of Note - Borrowed Amount = $114,000 - $67,653 = $46,347

On December 31, 2020 calculate the present value of face value of note and recoverable value

Present value of Note = Face value x Discount factor at 11% for 3 years = $114,000 x 1/( 1 + 11%)^3 = $83,355.82

Present value of recoverable value of note = Recoverable value of note x Discount factor at 11% for 3 years = $85,500 x 1/( 1 + 11%)^3 = $62,516.86

Now calculate the impairment loss as follow

Impairment loss = Present value of Note - Present value of recoverable value of note = $83,355.82 - $62,516.86 = $20,838.96 = $20,839

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3 years ago
Combining a protective put with a forward contract generates equivalent outcomes at expiration to those of a:
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Answer:

Fiduciary call.

Explanation:

Foreign exchange market can be defined as type of market in which the currency of one country is converted into that of another country.

For example, the conversion of dollars of the United States of America can be converted into naira (Nigeria) at the foreign exchange market.

A covered interest arbitrage can be defined as trading strategy in which an investor minimizes his or her currency risk by using a forward contract to hedge against the interest rate difference between two countries i.e the exchange rate risk. Thus, it's considered to be the most common interest rate arbitrage around the world.

Generally, when a protective put is combined with a forward contract it would generate equivalent outcomes at expiration to those of a fiduciary call.

This ultimately implies that, a fiduciary call combines both a call option and a bond that's risk free and matures on the expiry date of an option.

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