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Mila [183]
4 years ago
7

Given that other nations still had slavery why did the abolitionists believe that the guilt for such oppression lay more heavily

on the united *** states? and why did they accuse the national and free-state governments of aiding and abetting the southern states in the continuation of slavery?
History
1 answer:
Allisa [31]4 years ago
7 0
The US was the 'city upon a hill': Using early Puritan ideology abolitionists saw the US as a beacon of equality and freedom which slavery spit in the face of. 

The US had been a model for political philosophy and an experiment which was mostly a success but slavery was a flaw. Abolitionists believed we could not be a beacon of freedom with the system in place. The US government refused to deal with the issue and compromises furthered the practice instead of limiting or eliminating it. 
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A, arson, and D, treason
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Hiya there!

Explanation:

The European Commission, for example, conducts its internal business in three languages, English, French, and German (sometimes called "procedural languages"), and goes fully multilingual only for public information and communication purposes.

<em><u>Hope this helped!</u></em>  ^w^

Credit sourced from "wikipedia"

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Explanation:

Differences:

Probably the biggest difference among the two is -- vocabulary.

Both nations use some common terms on the daily basis that are differently written and pronounced.

The Americans live in apartments, the Brits live in a flat.

The Americans drive a truck, the Brits drive a lorry.

The difference is also seen in auxiliary verbs -- for example will and shall.

Even though Americans have that word in their vocabulary, they don't really use it. They find it too stiff and formal.

When a Brit would say, '' I shall go home now '' ,he express that this certain action will occur somewhere in the near future.

The Americans would say, '' I will go home now '' .

There is a visible difference in past tense verbs as well.

We all know the three columns that each verb has, well, Brits don't (almost) ever use the third column, aka, past participle.

When a Brit would say '' I haven never got a pet as a present '', American would answer '' I've gotten three by now ''.

When it comes to tag questions, Brits use it way more than the Americans, even though both of their dictionaries contain them.

A Brit would say '' You love me, don't you? '' where an American would simply keep it at '' You love me? ''

There are many difference in spelling, too.

For Americans, it's as simple as flavor, color, favor, labor.

For the Brits, it's a bit flavour, colour, favour and labour.

Still, there are many more similarities than actual differences.

Influences:

The Americans decided to change their language because of Noah Webster.

He had a vision that America as a new nation should have differences compared to the British people. He wanted to show America's independence.

For a fact, American English is actually older than British.

British English sounds more like french which can be seen in some of the words with - our.

Both of the nations have collected words from different languages: French, Arabic, Spanish... etc.

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