To get 75 decreased by 40% you subtract 40% from 100%.
100 - 40 = 60
So to get 60% of 75 you multiply .60 by 75.
.60 x 75 = 45
You have $45 now, but you have to decrease it by 40% again. You do the same process, so we need to multiply .60 by 45.
.60 x 45 = 27
So, the final result is $27.
Answer:
−72x
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
step 1. Angle bisector theorem.
step 2. 14/6 = 21/ (3x - 12)
step 3. 14(3x - 12) =21(6)
step 4. 6x - 24 = 18
step 5. 6x = 42
step 6. x = 7.
If I read your post properly, the two fractions are -14/10 and -12/b.
The LCD is found by finding prime factors of each term, then collecting the ones that appear the most.
10 = 2 x 5
b = b
2 x 5 x b = 10b
Answer:
Q1
slope=0.16
intercept=30.2
Q2
78.2
Q3
36%
Step-by-step explanation:
Question 1
We are given that
xbar=280
sx=30
ybar=75
sy=8
r=0.6
The regression line can be written as
y=a+bx
a=intercept
b=slope
where

and

b=0.6*(8/30)
b=0.16
a=75-0.16*280
a=30.2
Thus,
slope=0.16
intercept=30.2
Question 2
The regression line in the given scenario
y=30.2+0.16x
Julie pre exam total before the exam was 300.
y=30.2+0.16*300
y=30.2+48=78.2
So, the predicted final exam score of Julie is 78.2.
Question 3
R² denotes the variation in dependent variable y explained by the linear relationship of x and y.
R²=0.6²=0.36
Thus, the proportion of the variation in final exam scores that is explained by the linear relationship between pre-exam scores and final exam scores is 36%.