Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:
You need to take the payment and substract $1 from them, corresponding to the bet cost. With this in mind, you will win $1 with probability 18/38 = 9/19 and you will lose $1 with probability 20/38 = 10/19. With this in mind, the distribution of X is given by the following probability mass function, with range {-1,1}


9: v=-2
X= 0
K=3
I hope this helps
Answer:
19.9 cm
Step-by-step explanation:
os that a 3.4 in the very left? if so...this should be it.
Answer: another way to name line PQ could be QP.
Step-by-step explanation: