If it took you (one person) 3 days to build a doghouse, then it should take 2 people to build it in half the time. So all we have to do is split 3 days in 2.
3/2 = 1.5
So it would take 1 1/2 days or 36 hours for 2 people to complete the doghouse.
Answer:
12.56 inches^2
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve this we use pi*r^2
Radius is diameter/2
so the equation is pi*2^2
pi*4
12.56 inches^2
Complete question :
It is estimated 28% of all adults in United States invest in stocks and that 85% of U.S. adults have investments in fixed income instruments (savings accounts, bonds, etc.). It is also estimated that 26% of U.S. adults have investments in both stocks and fixed income instruments. (a) What is the probability that a randomly chosen stock investor also invests in fixed income instruments? Round your answer to decimal places. (b) What is the probability that a randomly chosen U.S. adult invests in stocks, given that s/he invests in fixed income instruments?
Answer:
0.929 ; 0.306
Step-by-step explanation:
Using the information:
P(stock) = P(s) = 28% = 0.28
P(fixed income) = P(f) = 0.85
P(stock and fixed income) = p(SnF) = 26%
a) What is the probability that a randomly chosen stock investor also invests in fixed income instruments? Round your answer to decimal places.
P(F|S) = p(FnS) / p(s)
= 0.26 / 0.28
= 0.9285
= 0.929
(b) What is the probability that a randomly chosen U.S. adult invests in stocks, given that s/he invests in fixed income instruments?
P(s|f) = p(SnF) / p(f)
P(S|F) = 0.26 / 0.85 = 0.3058823
P(S¦F) = 0.306 (to 3 decimal places)
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
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