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goblinko [34]
3 years ago
8

PLEASE HELP I DONT UNDERSTAND ILL GIVE MORE IF ITS RIGHT

Mathematics
1 answer:
erastova [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

17ft

Step-by-step explanation:

What you're going to do is solve this backwards so to find volume the eqation is v=(pir^2)h, so what you're going to do is:

833pi=(pi7^2)h                 you cross out pi and square 7                           833=49*h                         then you divide 49 from both sides and get 17

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For the figure shown on the right, find the value of the variable and the measures of the angles. PLZ HELP
pychu [463]
P=69 degrees
Q=71 degrees
R=40 degrees

Explanation

All triangles equal up to 180 degrees.
First add all numbers without x.
Then add all xs.

5x+20=180
Subtract 20 from 180

5x=160
Divide 160 by 5

x=40

8 0
3 years ago
Please Help! The graph of y=f(x) is shown below. What are all of the real solutions of f(x)=0? (Picture of graph included)
qwelly [4]

Answer:

(7, 0), (-8, 0), (0, 0)

Step-by-step explanation:

y = f(x) = 0

the real solutions are the ones that cross the x-axis because when a point is on the x-axis, its y coordinate will be 0.

=> (7, 0), (-8, 0), (0, 0)

6 0
3 years ago
The waiting time to ride a roller coaster is 20 minutes when 150 people are in line. How long is the waiting time when 240 peopl
laiz [17]

Answer: The waiting time will be 32 minutes when 240 people in line.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us assume that the waiting time is directly proportional to the number of people in the queue.

Equation of direct proportion between variables x and y :  \dfrac{x_1}{y_1}=\dfrac{x_2}{y_2}

Put x_1=20,\ y_1=150,\ y_2=150  to find  x_2.

\dfrac{20}{150}=\dfrac{x_2}{240}\\\\\Rightarrow\ x_2=\dfrac{20}{150}\times240\\\\\Rightarrow\ x_2=32

Hence, the waiting time will be 32 minutes when 240 people in line.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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Tanzania [10]
-2 is the answer! Remove the parentheses then move the terms. After that, collect the terms and calculate. Lastly, divide both sides.
5 0
3 years ago
I’m confused on the answer
Ivenika [448]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You are going to have to divide 1433 by 67 and you see how much money equals one training sesion. Then you do 79 training sessions by how much money is equal to one training session

6 0
3 years ago
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