Explanation:
The journal entries are as follows
On December 31
Bad debt expense Dr $4,115 ($823,000 × 0.50%)
To Allowance for doubtful debts $4,115
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
On Feb 01
Allowance for doubtful debts Dr $412
To Account receivable $412
(Being the uncollectible amount is recorded)
On June 5
Account receivable $412
To Allowance for doubtful debts Dr $412
(Being the uncollectible amount is recorded)
On June 5
Cash Dr $412
To Account receivable $412
(Being the cash received is recorded)
Answer:
<em>a. 22.64%</em>
Explanation:
At first we are going to need to compute the Internal rate of return(IRR) (in which the current value of inflows = the current value of outflows)
Let's let the IRR be <em>x percent</em>
Therefore $4,500 = $750 / (1.0x)
+ $1,000 / (1.0x) <em>power 2</em> + $850 / (1.0x) <em>power 3 </em>
+ $6,250 / (1.0x) <em>power 4</em>
Thus, x = approximate return rate = <em>22.64 percent</em>
INVESTING IS THE CORRECT ANSWER ]
Answer:
out of the loanable funds market.
Explanation:
In the case when the Fed purchased bonds from a financial institution so the new money shift directly out of the funds market i.e. lonable because the bank reserve would increased also they begins lending at lesser rate of interest
Therefore as per the given situation, the fourth option is correct
And, the same is relevant
Answer:
net income: $ 451,010
EPS: $ 6.32 per share
Explanation:
net sales 2,409,200
cost of good sold (1,464,600)
gross profit: 944,600
operating expenses:
selling expenses (284,000)
operating income 660,600
non operating:
interest revenue 38,100
interest expense (54,400)
non operating expense (16,300)
earning before taxes: 644,300
tax expense: 30% 193,260
net income 451,010
shares outstanding 71,390
Earning per share: 451,010/71,390 = 6,31755
