Answer:
<em> </em><em>interest </em><em>earned</em><em> </em><em>on </em><em>both</em><em> </em><em>the </em><em>initial</em><em> </em><em>principal</em><em> </em><em>and </em><em>the </em><em>interest </em><em>reinvested </em><em>from </em><em>prior </em><em>periods </em><em>is </em><em>called </em><em><u>compound</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>interest</u></em><em><u>.</u></em>
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<em>Compound </em><em>interest</em><em>.</em><em> </em><em>The </em><em>interest</em><em> </em><em>which </em><em>is </em><em>added </em><em>on </em><em>to </em><em>the </em><em>initial</em><em> </em><em>investment</em><em>,</em><em> </em><em>so </em><em>that</em><em> </em><em>this </em><em>will </em><em>itself</em><em> </em><em>gain </em><em>interest </em><em>in </em><em>subsequent</em><em> </em><em>perio</em><em>d</em><em>s.</em>
Answer:
Buydown, is the right answer.
Explanation:
This is a buydown mortgage arrangement because in the buydown financing technique the buyer tries to take lower interest rates in the initial year of the loan period. Moreover, some mortgage lenders provide buydown discounts or points as part of their promotion. Secondly, the builder pays the initial payment to the mortgage institution that results in the lower buyer’s payment.
Answer:
Share Authorized = 100,000 Shares
Share issued = 70,000
Share outstanding = 66,000 shares
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Number of shares Gagne Corporation allows the issuance = 100,000 shares
Number of shares Gagne sold to shareholders = 70,000
Number of shares reacquired by Gagne = 4,000
Now,
Share Authorized = Number of shares Gagne Corporation allows the issuance
= 100,000 Shares
Share issued = Number of shares Gagne sold to shareholders
= 70,000
Share outstanding = Shares issued - Number of shares reacquired
= 70,000 - 4,000
= 66,000 shares
Answer:
Current value = $550
Explanation:
You can solve this question using a financial calculator. I am using (Texas Instruments BA II plus)
First, since it is Semiannual coupon, adjust the interest rate to semi-annual rate and multiply 15 years by 2 since we have 2 semi annual periods per year.
<em>Note: If using the same calculator as me, key in the numbers first before the function .</em>
Total duration of investment ;N = 15 * 2 = 30
Interest rate; I/Y = 16% / 2 = 8%
Face value; FV = 1000
Semi annual Coupon Payment ; PMT = (8%/2)*1000 = 40
then CPT PV = $549.689
Therefore the current value of this bond is $550 (rounded to whole number.)
Answer:
are in their directly related field, they are going to have more market opportunities if they stick to their target market
Explanation:
