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fgiga [73]
3 years ago
10

Why did the 30-60-90 triangle marry the 45-45-90 triangle

Mathematics
1 answer:
Tatiana [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer: because they were right for each other.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Please answer BOTH questions
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:46.28, 193.75

Step-by-step explanation:

The first one you add (((2.5+4.7)x3.05)+1.18)x2. And the second one you (7.50+0.25)x25.

4 0
3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to
nirvana33 [79]

For this case, we must find an expression equivalent to:

\frac {-9x ^ {- 1} y ^ {- 9}} {- 15x ^ 5y ^ {- 3}}

By definition of power properties we have:

a ^ {- 1} = \frac {1} {a ^ 1} = \frac {1} {a}

Rewriting the previous expression we have:

The "-" are canceled and we take into account that:

\frac {9} {15} = \frac {3} {5}

So:

\frac {3} {5x^5 * x ^ 1 *y ^ 9* y ^ {- 3}} =

According to one of the properties of powers of the same base, we must put the same base and add the exponents:

\frac {3} {5x ^ {5 + 1} * y ^ {9-3}} =\\\frac {3} {5x ^ 6 * y ^ 6}

Answer:

\frac {3} {5x ^ 6 * y ^ 6}

Option B

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose you have two urns with poker chips in them. Urn I contains two red chips and four white chips. Urn II contains three red
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

Multiple answers

Step-by-step explanation:

The original urns have:

  1. Urn 1 = 2 red + 4 white = 6 chips
  2. Urn 2 = 3 red + 1 white = 4 chips

We take one chip from the first urn, so we have:

The probability of take a red one is : \frac{1}{3} (2 red from 6 chips(2/6=1/2))

For a white one is: \frac{2}{3}(4 white from 6 chips(4/6=(2/3))

Then we put this chip into the second urn:

We have two possible cases:

  • First if the chip we got from the first urn was white. The urn 2 now has 3 red + 2 whites = 5 chips
  • Second if the chip we got from the first urn was red. The urn two now has 4 red + 1 white = 5 chips

If we select a chip from the urn two:

  • In the first case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{2}{5} = 40%  ( 2 whites of 5 chips)
  • In the second case the probability of taking a white one is of:  \frac{1}{5} = 20%  ( 1 whites of 5 chips)

This problem is a dependent event because the final result depends of the first chip we got from the urn 1.

For the fist case we multiply :

\frac{4}{6} x \frac{2}{5} = \frac{4}{15} = 26.66%   ( \frac{4}{6} the probability of taking a white chip from the urn 1, \frac{2}{5}  the probability of taking a white chip from urn two)

For the second case we multiply:

\frac{1}{3} x \frac{1}{5} = \frac{1}{30} = .06%   ( \frac{1}{3} the probability of taking a red chip from the urn 1, \frac{1}{5}   the probability of taking a white chip from the urn two)

8 0
3 years ago
Help please!!
Reil [10]
I hope this helps you




4r=p-3t



r=p-3t/4
3 0
3 years ago
If the mean of the data set is 35 apples, find the number of apples on the Granny Smith tree,
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

can i please have more details please?

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
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