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3 years ago

The opportunity cost of making a component part in a factory with excess capacity for which there is no alternative use is:

Business

1 answer:

Travka [436]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Zero

Explanation:

Opportunity costs can be regarded as the potential benefits that is been missed out by an investor, business or

individual, when they are choosing one alternative over other alternatives.

When a company understand potential missed opportunities as a result of

choosing one investment over another , it helps them in better decision-making. For instance, opportunity cost of making a component part in a factory with excess capacity for which there is no alternative use is zero, this so as a result of the case that there is no alternative here, and there was no miss out of benefits from any alternative.

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Majer Corporation makes a product with the following standard costs:Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price or Rate Standard C

Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

variable overhead efficiency variance= $2,400 favorable

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Standard:

Variable overhead = $4.00 per hour

Actual output of 5,000 units

Actual direct labor-hours 1,900 hours

To calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance, we need to use the following formula:

variable overhead efficiency variance= (Standard Quantity - Actual Quantity)*Standard rate

Standard quantity= 5,000 units* 0.5 hours= 2,500 hours

Actual quantity= 1,900 hours

variable overhead efficiency variance= (2,500 - 1,900)*4= $2,400 favorable

7 0

4 years ago

On January 1, you sold short four round lots (that is, 400 shares) of Four Sisters stock at $63 per share. On March 1, a dividen

Ede4ka [16]

Answer:

Value of the account = -$900

Explanation:

Accumulated profits from the short sale = Number of shares x Price per share

= 300 x $50 = $15,000

Commissions that are paid during the short sale = Commission per share x Number of shares

= 0.5 x 300 = $150

The Net proceeds from the short sale = Proceeds – Commissions

= 15000 – 150 = $14,850

Total dividend paid = Number of shares x Dividend per share

= 300 x 3 = $900

Money paid in covering the short sale = Number of shares x Price

= 300 x $49 = $14,700

Commissions paid in covering the short sale = Commission per share x Number of shares

= 0.5 x 300 = $150

Total money paid in covering the short sale

= 14700 + 150 = $14,850

Therefore, Value of the account = Proceeds – Dividend paid – Money paid

= $14,850 - $900 - $14,850 = -$900

Value of the account = -$900

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Year Nominal GDP Real GDP GDP Deflator (Dollars) (Base year 2016, dollars) 2016 2017 2018 From 2017 to 2018, nominal GDP , and r

FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

Explanation:

The Real GDP is defined as the Nominal GDP minus the inflation effect.

Real GDP provides a more accurate picture of economic growth than nominal GDP because it uses constant prices, making comparisons between years more meaningful by allowing for comparisons of the actual volume of goods and services without considering inflation.

Let's say you bought apples at 5dollars per pound in 2015. Imagining a country of 1000 people and considering everyone bought a pound apples and only apples in that year, the GDP comes out to be 1000*5 = 5000 dollars.

Now let's say inflation rate is 10 percent in 2016 which will increase the price to 5.5 dollars per pound. Also, in one year, 10 more people were added to the country (No of births - No of deaths = New people in that year), this brings out total population to around 1010.

Also, let's say that the sale of apples remained the same, so the GDP of 2016 comes out to be 1000*5.5 = 5500 dollars.

That's a whooping 10% increase in GDP, right?

But here the catch.

The GDP increased not because the demand increased, but because the price of the good increased.

If we see at previous year's price (Not considering the inflation, also called Real GDP), the GDP is same which is 5000 dollars.

So, in reality, there isn't any increase in GDP.

6 0

3 years ago

Amanda Winter worked as a public engagement coordinator at Safe Food Alliance until three months ago when her manager, Laura Mor

fenix001 [56]

Answer:E. Laura worked closely with Amanda over a period of eight months.

Explanation: As a manager, Laura has worked with Amanda for a period of time. As her manager, supervising her work over a period of time made her feel she is capable of handling a project on her own without been supervised or told what to do. But she is wrong or has been proven wrong by Amanda's inability to handle the project as the project is falling behind schedule.

6 0

3 years ago

A donor gave equipment valued at $60,000 at the beginning of 2017 to a private not-for-profit organization. The equipment had a

tiny-mole [99]

Answer:

Usually the nonprofit organization should report the value of the donated asset as the difference between the price when donated minus depreciation: $60,000 - $6,000 = $54,000.

But nonprofit organization can choose to recognize only a part of the donation each year as long as they use the asset. This recognized part is usually equivalent to the depreciation cost, so the value of the asset at the end of the year will always be 0. They do this to show smaller balances in order to try to attract more donations. It is always harder for wealthy nonprofit organizations to get more donations, so be having 0 assets donated, they pretend to be "poorer".

4 0

4 years ago