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LUCKY_DIMON [66]
3 years ago
6

If you need to use 4/5 of a cup of strawberries for a single pie . How many cups would be needed for 2 pies.

Mathematics
1 answer:
kirza4 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1 3/5      or 8/5     cups for 2 pies

Step-by-step explanation:

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I need help with these question! Please explain step by step-
eduard

Answer:

3 bags of chocolate chips and 3 bags of walnuts

Step-by-step explanation:

1 pound = 16 ounces (oz). So, our dear Jemina needs 48 ounces. Then, we do system of equations. one of the equations are 3x +2y = 15(dollars), and then second is 12x + 4y = 48. (ounces/pound). Let's solve for x first. We multiply the dollars equation by 2 to eliminate y from both equations. 6x +4y = 30. When you subtract, you get 6x = 18. So, x = 3, Jemina buys 3 chocolate chips bags. So, thats $9. So, she also spends $6 on walnuts. For checking, 3 bags of chocolate chips  = 36 ounces. 3 bags of walnuts = 12 ounces. 36+12 ounces  = 48 ounces. :D

5 0
3 years ago
Help pls :( I’ll mark you brainlist no links<br> Links= report
yan [13]

Answer:

x = 112, y = 68, z = 112

Step-by-step explanation:

y = 68

x = z = 180 - 68 = 112

8 0
2 years ago
In the number 114.92 what digit is in the ones place?
sergeinik [125]
The number places go ones, tens, hundreds, thousands, ignore the decimals
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which function has an inverse function?
daser333 [38]

Answer: Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.

A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, x_1 and x_2, that have the same output value y

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{|x+3|}{5}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=2  f(x)= \frac{|2+3|}{5}=1\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=8  f(x)= \frac{|-8+3|}{5}=1\ \ ,\ y=1

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{x^4}{7}+ 27  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{(1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{(-1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{1}{x^2}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{1}{(1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{1}{(-1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

Then the answer is the option B.

You can verify that The function f (x) = x ^ 5-3 is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function

5 0
3 years ago
Rewrite using the distributive property
ser-zykov [4K]

The answer is 7 h...Hope it works :)

5 0
3 years ago
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