Answer: The labor efficiency variance for the month is closest to: $2576
Explanation:
Given:
Actual output 8,800 units
Actual direct labor-hours 1,610 hours
Actual direct labor rate $ 23.30 per hour
The labor efficiency variance for the month is computed as :
The labor rate variance = Actual hours×(Actual rate - Standard rate)
=1610 ×($23.30-$21.70)
=$2576
Answer:
The answer is: Longer lead times and they can be inventoried.
Explanation:
Physical goods or products usually have longer lead times than services (although not necessarily) but the main difference between them is that they can be inventoried.
For example, a company that produces chairs can produce chairs during the week and then store them in a warehouse. But if a hotel only rents 30 of its 50 available rooms today, it cannot rent 80 rooms tomorrow, only 50. A service by definition cannot be inventoried, or stored for later use.
Answer:
"at-will" simply means the employer can let you go without cause
Explanation:
At-will means that an employer can terminate an employee at any time for any reason, except an illegal one, or for no reason without incurring legal liability. Likewise, an employee is free to leave a job at any time for any or no reason with no adverse legal consequences.
Answer: d. b and c
Your analysis assumes that velocity is constant, and it is not.
Your analysis assumes that you can correctly define the money supply
Explanation:
Here are the options for the question:
a. Your analysis assumes that Real GDP is constant over time, and it is not.
b. Your analysis assumes that velocity is constant, and it is not.
c. Your analysis assumes that you can correctly define the money supply.
d. b and c
e. a, b and c
According to the constant-money-growth-rate rule, the government should target money growth rate in a way that it will be equal to growth rate of the real GDP.
The likely thing that economist Smith, who favors activist monetary policy would say to economist Jones is that Jones is assuming velocity will be constant, and is also correctly defining the money supply which should not.be the case as velocity isn't always constant.
Answer:
$8,000
Explanation:
The computation of the interest expense is shown below:
= Note payable × interest rate × number of months ÷ total number of months - Note payable × interest rate × number of months ÷ total number of months
= $200,000 × 12% × 6 months ÷ 12 months - $200,000 × 12% × 2 months ÷ 12 months
= $12,000 - $4,000
= $8,000
The 6 months is calculated from November 1, 20X1 to May 1, 20X2
And, the 2 months is calculated from On November 1, 20X1 to December 31,20X1
We assume the accounts are closed on December 31
Or we can do one thing also
Take the 4 months from Jan 1, 20X2 to May 1, 20X2
= $200,000 × 12% × 4 months ÷ 12 months
= $8,000
