Hello Vivianaguevara1,
This question can be sort of hard to answer but I can give some tips.
1.) Color code: Try color coded binders
2.) Buy a multi subject notebook
3.) Challenge yourself: Give yourself incentive to stay organized
~Naterator
Please Rate and Thank If This Helped <3
Answer: $153,782.70
Explanation:
The MACRS allowance percentages are as follows, commencing with Year 1: 14.29, 24.49, 17.49, 12.49, 8.93, 8.92, 8.93, and 4.46 percent.
In 4 years, the depreciation would be:
= Cost price * (4 year deprecation)
= 525,000 * (14.29% + 24.49% + 17.49% + 12.49%)
= $360,990
Book value :
= 525,000 - 360,990
= $164,010
Gain (loss) = Sale price - Book value
= 150,000 - 164,010
= ($14,010)
Tax payable = (14,010) * 27%
= ($3,782.70)
After-tax cash flow:
= Selling price - Taxes
= 150,000 - (-3,782.70)
= $153,782.70
<em>Note: If there are options, beware of rounding errors and pick nearest option. </em>
Answer:
Predatory pricing.
Explanation:
Predatory pricing is a strategy that is used by firms to gain customers, create barrier of entry from a market, or to drive competition out of the market. The firm prices it's products very low so that competitors cannot afford to sell at the same price.
This results in competitors going out of business. The result of predatory pricing is that there are few firms left in the industry, or there is establishment of a monopoly.
D)
Market equilibrium occurs when supply = demand
Answer: According to the sticky-wage theory of aggregate supply, nominal wages at the initial equilibrium are <u>EQUAL TO</u> nominal wages at the short-run equilibrium resulting from the increase in the money supply, and <u>LESS THAN</u> nominal wages at the long-run equilibrium.
