Answer:
Explanation:
Let's first determine the free cash flow of the firm
Particulars Years
1 2 3
EBIT 540 680 750
<u>Tax at 36% (0.36*540) (0.36*680) (0.36*750) </u>
Less: 345.6 435.2 480
Net Capital -
Spending 150 170 190
<u>Change in NWC 70 75 80 </u>
Less: 125.6 190.2 210
The terminal value at the end of T =(3 years) is:



= 2011.26
Finally, the value of the firm can be computed as follows:
Years Free Cash Flow PVIF PV
1 125.6 0.6589 107.88
2 190.2 0.7377 140.31
3 210 0.6336 133.06
<u>Terminal Value 2011.26 0.6336 1294.33 </u>
<u>Value of the firm ⇒ $1655.58</u>
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Joint venture.
Explanation:
In a Joint Venture, two or more businesses agree to contribute to capital and resources for a common project. Usually, developers, manufacturers, and service providers agree to form a joint venture. If successful, those parties split the profit based on the value of their respective contribution to the joint venture.
<span>materials cost behavior units per case cos.</span>
Answer:
Allocated MOH= $432,000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Predetermined overhead rate of $8.00 per machine-hour
Actual machine-hours worked= 54,000 hours
<u>To calculate the allocated overhead, we need to use the following formula:</u>
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 8*54,000
Allocated MOH= $432,000
<span> Manufacturing overhead describes the difference between manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process and manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period.</span>
Over-applied manufacturing overhead would result if the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is more than the manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period. So, in over-applied overhead the applied overhead is bigger than the actual overhead.