Yes because is we replace both numbers it would end as...
ab=cd
14=14
Answer:
5.80% probability that exactly 1 resume will be from females.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each resume received by the corporation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are from a female, or they are not. The probability of a resume received being from a female is independent from other resumes. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
22% of all resumes received by a corporation for a management position are from females.
This means that 
18 resumes will be received tomorrow.
This means that 
What is the probability that exactly 1 resume will be from females?
This is P(X = 1).


5.80% probability that exactly 1 resume will be from females.
Q represents how many they did NOT recieve
380-127= 253
Now let's check
380-253= 127
CHECK
So q represents 253(the number of invitations they did NOT recieve)
Hope this helps!
I'm thinking this is what the problem looks like:

. The first thing to do is to move the

over to the other side because it has a common denominator with the other side. Doing that and at the same time combining them over their common denominator looks like this:

. The best way to solve for x now is to cross-multiply to get 3(4-x)=-4(x-4). Distributing through the parenthesis is 12 - 3x = -4x + 16. Solving for x gives us x = 4. Of course when we sub a 4 back in for x we get real problems, don't we? Dividing by zero breaks every rule in math that there ever was! So, yes, the solution is extraneous.