Answer:
-4.
Step-by-step explanation:
2x^2 - 5xy - y^3
= 2(-3)^2 - 5(-3)(-2) - (-2)^3
= 2*9 - 5(-3)(-2) - (-8)
= 18 -5*6+ 8
= 18 - 30 + 8
= -12 + 8
= -4.
The probability of first rolling a 1, then a 5, will be
.
<h3>
What is probability?</h3>
- Probability is an area of mathematics that deals with numerical descriptions of how probable an event is to occur or how likely a statement is to be true.
- The probability of an event is a number between 0 and 1, where 0 denotes the event's impossibility and 1 represents certainty.
- The greater the likelihood of an occurrence, the more probable it will occur.
To find the probability of getting a 1 the first time and a 5 the second time:
Probability of getting 1 in 1st time = ![\frac{1}{6}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%7D)
Probability of getting 5 in 2nd time = ![\frac{1}{6}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%7D)
The probability of first rolling a 1, then a 5, will be =
× ![\frac{1}{6}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B6%7D)
![= \frac{1}{36}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B36%7D)
Therefore, the probability of first rolling a 1, then a 5, will be
.
Know more about probability here:
brainly.com/question/24756209
#SPJ4
Answer:
$30
Step-by-step explanation:
5 x 6 = 30
hope this helped :)
0.09121×1000=<span>91
</span><span>if you have 21 bins then the 'middle bin' is bin 11 (starting at 1)
</span>
<span>So the 'mean' of this distribution is 11.
</span>
<span>Therefore from 1000 balls the number of balls is 0.91 x 1000.
</span>
So therefore the answer would be C
Answer:
the answer is option c
c)60
Step-by-step explanation:
From the given statement 2 × 3 mixed factorial design where 2 is a factor which is within the subject and
3 is the subject between the subject
then observation per cell where participants will need is 3* 20 = 60 because 3 is the factor between the subject.