The probability that her first treat is jelly is 4/20. Since she eats the candy and does not replace it, the probability the second treat is jelly would be 3/19 (1 less jelly and 1 less total candies). You would then multiply (4/20) by (3/19). That is your answer.
Answer:
H.
Step-by-step explanation:
The graph goes through 5 of the x -axis and -4 on the y axis
Answer: AD = 9cm
Step-by-step explanation: This is a 30-60-90 triangle, so the hypotenuse is equal to twice the length of the short side of the right angle.
BC is the short side of the large triangle, so AB, the hypotenuse of the large triangle is 2×6, 12 cm
BC is also the hypotenuse of the small triangle, ΔBCD, so it is twice the length of BD, to that makes BD = 6/2= 3
Subtract BD from AB.
That's 12 - 3 = 9 the length of AD
<span>P(4, -4) ----> (-4, 7)
x- axis from 4 to -4 ; move to the left 8 units.
y-axis from -4 to 7 ; move up 11 units
</span><span>D. left 8; up 11
</span><span>C(3, -1) translated to the left 4 units and up 1 unit.
from 3 of x-axis move to the left 4 units to arrive at -1
from -1 of y-axis move up 1 unit is to arrive at 0.
(xy) </span>→ (x-4, y + 1) (-1,0) Choice D.
