Answer:
I hope it will help you :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that,
a)
X ~ Bernoulli
and Y ~ Bernoulli 
X + Y = Z
The possible value for Z are Z = 0 when X = 0 and Y = 0
and Z = 1 when X = 0 and Y = 1 or when X = 1 and Y = 0
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1 , then the probability mass function of the random variable Z takes on the value of 0 for any value of Z other than 0 and 1,
Therefore Z is a Bernoulli random variable
b)
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1
then,
or 
and 

c)
If both X = 1 and Y = 1 then Z = 2
The possible values of the random variable Z are 0, 1 and 2.
since a Bernoulli variable should be take on only values 0 and 1 the random variable Z does not have Bernoulli distribution
Answer:

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The answer is A. 0
i hope this helps!
P =$3000, r = 28% , t = 5 years
<span>A = 3000.e^(0.28)(5) = 3000.(4.0551) = $12,165.60</span>