Answer:
$0
Explanation:
According to US GAAP the reduction in the value of the asset due to a decrease in the fair value. It means when fair value of the asset is reduced than the book value of the asset.
Amortized Cost / Book value = $50,000
Market Value = $53,000
Discounted Value = $51,000
There is no Impairment loss on this asset as the fair market value is more than the book value of the asset.
Answer:
Dr Profit and loss account $454,000
Cr Retained earnings $454,000
Explanation:
Preparation of the Journal entry to close net income for Riverbed Corporation
Based on the information given we were told that the Corporation reports net income of the amount of $454,000 on December 31 this means the Journal entry to close the account will be recorded as:
Dr Profit and loss account $454,000
Cr Retained earnings $454,000
Answer:
Option C is correct one.
Interest expense 773
Discount on bonds payable 73
Cash 700
Explanation:
2016 interest expense = initial issue price, which is the 1/1/2014 book value x the market (effective) interest rate
= $9,668 x 08
= $773
Cash interest payment
= maturity value of the bond x the stated interest rate = $10,000 x .07
= $700
Amortization of discount on bonds payable
= interest expense - interest cash payment
= $773 - $700.
= $73
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Profit is Maximize when MR = MC
since MR=40 - 0.5Q
and MC= 4
Therefore:
40-0.5Q = 4
-0.5Q = 4 - 40
-0.5Q= -36
divide through by -0.5
Q = 72
since Q = 72
from Q = 160 - 4p
72 = 160 - 4P
-4p = 72 - 160
-4P = -88
divide through by -4
P = 22
Answer:
d. -$4,608
Explanation:
The computation of the total capital gain is shown below:
Total capital gains is
= (End value - Beginning value) × 900 shares
= ($34.08 - $39.20) × 900 shares
= -$4,608
Hence, the total capital gain on this investment is -$4,608
Therefore the option d is correct
And, the same is to be relevant
