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andrew11 [14]
3 years ago
10

A decrease in the fixed asset turnover ratio from 3.0 to 2.2 indicates a.an unfavorable change in the efficiency of using fixed

assets to pay down debt. b.an unfavorable change in the efficiency of using cash to generate sales. c.a favorable change in the efficiency of using fixed assets to generate sales. d.an unfavorable change in the efficiency of using fixed assets to generate sales.
Business
1 answer:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

d.an unfavorable change in the efficiency of using fixed assets to generate sales.

Explanation:

Since as we can see in the given situation that there is the reduction in the fixed asset turnover ratio i.e. it is reduced from 3 to 2.2 this means that there is a change i.e. unfavorable or non-favorable with respect to the efficiency of applying the fixed asset in order to producing or generating the sales

Therefore the option d is correct

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Describe China’s strategy in Africa.
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

The strategy for China seems to be to use the resources that Africa has in its hands from the small groups that control parts of the continent in order to fund themselves as well as help increase revenue for the countries that allow them to do so.

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
The contract starts on July 1, 2018. Under the terms of the contract, Emmett will be paid a fixed fee of $50,000 per year and wi
abruzzese [7]

75,000$

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7 0
3 years ago
Mays Corp. reported free cash flows for 2018 of $491 million and investment in operating capital of $321 million. Mays Corp. inc
Anon25 [30]

Answer: $975 million

Explanation:

Given the above details, we can solve for Earnings Before Tax and Interest with the following formula,

Operating Cash Flow = EBIT – Taxes on EBIT + Depreciation

Making EBIT the subject would turn it to be,

EBIT = Operating Cash Flow + Taxes on EBIT - Depreciation

We have all of the above except the EBIT and Operating Cash Flow.

Luckily we can solve for the Operating Cash Flow with the details given using,

Operating cash flow = Free Cash Flow + Investment in operating capital

Therefore,

= $491 million + $321 million

= $812 million

Operating cash flow is $812 million

Plugging it into the original formula we have,

EBIT = Operating Cash Flow + Taxes on EBIT - Depreciation

EBIT = $812 million + $309 million - $146 million

EBIT = $975 million

Earnings before Taxes and Interest is $975 million.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

5 0
3 years ago
Laura Cervantes is a currency speculator and she sells eight June futures contracts for 500,000 pesos at the futures price of 0.
Alecsey [184]

Answer:

500,000 Pesos (MXN) is the June Futures Contract

Number of Contracts Sold = 8

Initial Exchange Rate = 0.10773$ / MXN

Initial Position Value = 8 x 500000 x 0.10773

Initial Position Value = $430,920

i. Final Exchange Rate = $0.12002 / MXN

Final Position Value = 8 x 500000 x 0.12002 = $480,080

Net Position Value = 430920 - 480080 = - $49,160

ii. Final Exchange Rate = $0.09802 / MXN

Final Position Value = 8 x 500000 x 0.09802 = $392,080

Net Position Value = 430920 - 392080 = $3,884

8 0
3 years ago
Brainly The management at Nickel Corporation is investigating purchasing equipment that would increase sales revenues by $378,00
prisoha [69]

Answer:

30.33%

Explanation:

The computation of the simple rate of return is shown below:

As we know that

Simple Rate of Return is

= Incremental Revenues - (Cash Operating Expenses + Depreciation expense ) ÷ Initial Investment

where,

Incremenal Revenues = $378,000

Cash Operating Expenses = $257,000

Depreciation is

= Cost of Equipment ÷ Usefull Life

= $300,000 ÷ 10 years

= $30,000

And, the Initial Investment is $300,000

Now putting these values to the above formula

So Simple Rate of Return is

= $378,000 - ($257,000 + $30,000) ÷ $300,000

= $378,000 - $287,000 ÷ $300,000

= $91,000 ÷ $300,000

= 30.33%

5 0
3 years ago
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