Answer:
d. the wealth effect of an aggregate price level change
Explanation:
The aggregate demand curve is negatively sloped due to <u>the wealth effect of an aggregate price level change</u>. The reason is that rise in the aggregate price decreases the purchasing power of the individual and thus, decreases in aggregate demand increases the purchasing power of the individual.
Answer:
a.) increased the after-tax cost of debt
Explanation:
Missing options are:
a.) increased the after-tax cost of debt
b.) did not change the after-tax cost of debt
c.) increased the value of the deduction for interest expense
d.) decreased the after-tax cost of debt
The after tax cost of debt is calculated by multiplying the debt's principal x interest rate x (1 - tax rate). If the tax rate decreases, the after tax cost of debt increases. e.g.
$1,000 owed at 6%, when tax rate was 40% ⇒ after tax cost of debt = $1,000 x 6% x (1 - 40%) = $36 or 3.6%
now, $1,000 owed at 6%, when tax rate is 21% ⇒ after tax cost of debt = $1,000 x 6% x (1 - 21%) = $47.40 or 4.74%
Answer:
the answer is A. inefficiency
Answer:
AFS 2004 market price decline exceeded 2005 market price recovery
No No
The security cannot be classified as available-for-sale because the unrealized gains and losses are recognized in the Income Statement. Unrealized gains and losses on available-for-sale securities are recognized in owners' equity, not earnings.
The second part of the question is somewhat ambiguous. The 2004 price decline could exceed or be exceeded by the 2005 price recovery. The loss in the first year is not related in amount and does not constrain the realized gain in the second year.
The way to answer the question is to read the right column heading as implying that the earlier price decline must exceed the later price recovery. With that interpretation, the correct answer is no.
For example, assume a cost of $10 and a market value of $4 at the end of the first year. An unrealized loss of $6 is recognized in earnings. During the second year, the security is sold for $12. A realized gain of $8 is recognized-the increase in the market value from the end of the first year to the sale in the second year. Thus, the market decline in the first year did not exceed the recovery in year two. (It could have exceeded the recovery in year two but there is no requirement that it must.)
Explanation:
