I'm assuming a 5-card hand being dealt from a standard 52-card deck, and that there are no wild cards.
A full house is made up of a 3-of-a-kind and a 2-pair, both of different values since a 5-of-a-kind is impossible without wild cards.
Suppose we fix both card values, say aces and 2s. We get a full house if we are dealt 2 aces and 3 2s, or 3 aces and 2 2s.
The number of ways of drawing 2 aces and 3 2s is
and the number of ways of drawing 3 aces and 2 2s is the same,
so that for any two card values involved, there are 2*24 = 48 ways of getting a full house.
Now, count how many ways there are of doing this for any two choices of card value. Of 13 possible values, we are picking 2, so the total number of ways of getting a full house for any 2 values is
The total number of hands that can be drawn is
Then the probability of getting a full house is
The inequality is given by 20x + 25y ≤ 1100 and x + y > 50
<h3>What is an
inequality?</h3>
An inequality is an expression that shows the non equal comparison of two or more numbers and variables.
Let y represent the number of soccer balls and x represent the number of volleyballs.
The coach can spend a maximum of $1,100, hence:
20x + 25y ≤ 1100
Also, The coach plans to order at least 50, hence:
x + y > 50
The inequality is given by 20x + 25y ≤ 1100 and x + y > 50
Find out more on inequality at: brainly.com/question/24372553
The answer is 8 because if you divide 52 by 4 it gives 13, do the same to the top and you get 8
Answer:
x = 33/5
Step-by-step explanation:
x - 3/5 = n.......n = 6
so we sub
x - 3/5 = 6......add 3/5 to both sides
x = 6 + 3/5...convert using common denominator of 5
x = 30/5 + 3/5
x = 33/5 <===
check...
x - 3/5 = 6
33/5 - 3/5 = 6
30/5 = 6
6 = 6 (correct)...so it checks out
