Answer: C
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Figure 1,
EA and EB are the opposite rays.
EC bisects angle FEG.
a). m∠FEC = 
(2x + 6) = 
2x + 6 = 20
2x = 14
x = 7
b). ED⊥AB
Therefore, m∠AED = 90°
m∠AED = 11y + 13 = 90°
11y = 90 - 13
11y = 77
y = 7
Figure 2,
NC bisects ∠WNB,
Therefore, ∠WNC ≅ ∠CNB
m∠WNC = m∠CNB
3v - 4 = 2v + 6
3v - 2v = 4 + 6
v = 10
Therefore, m∠WNC = x = (3v - 4)
x = 3(10) - 10
= 30 - 10
x = 20
Using the Pythagorean theorem
c^2 = a^2 +b^2
C^2 = 12^2 + 8^2
c^2 = 144 +64
c^2 = 208
c= sqrt(208)
c= 14.4 feet
Answer:
The present value of the fund=$25,939.66
Step-by-step explanation:
Step 1
Determine the future value of the fund as shown;
Future value(F.V)=payment amounts per year×number of years
where;
payment amounts per year=$10,000
number of years=6
replacing;
Future value (F.V)=(10,000×6)=60,000
Future value (F.V)=$60,000
Step 2
Determine the present value (P.V) of the fund as shown;
F.V=P.V(1+r)^n
where;
F.V=future value
P.V=present value
r=annual interest rate
n=number of years
In our case;
F.V=$60,000
P.V=unknown
r=15%=15/100=0.15
n=6
replacing;
60,000=P.V(1+0.15)^6
60,000=P.V(1.15)^6
P.V=60,000/{(1.15)^6}
P.V=25,939.66
The present value of the fund=$25,939.66
Answer:
m+k=hw
m=hw-m
always conside BODMAS rule and subject
