I think the correct answer should be 1/8 or 1:8
Answer:
A.) will be the correct answer to your problem
1/6 because the first number that you roll doesn't matter so it depends on the 2nd roll, in which the probability of rolling a specific number is 1/6
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
(-5) * (-3) * (-3) = -5 * -3 * -3 = 15 * -3 = -45
Let the number be n.
Then 3n+5 = n+40
Combining like terms, we get
2n = 35, and so n = 35/7, or 17 1/2.