The figures are similar. Find x.
1 answer:
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<h2>Hello!</h2>
The answer is: 33.33%
<h2>Why?</h2>Since we have the average number of accidents that occurs in 1 month, and it's equal to 3, we can calculate the probability of 1 accident occurs by dividing it into the average number of accidents, using the following formula:
Where,
Favorable outcomes are the occurrence of the event, for this case, it's equal to 1.
Outcomes are the possible occurrence of the event, for this case, it's equal to 3.
So, by substituting we have:
So, the probability will be equal to 33.33%
Have a nice day!
Answer:
160/196
Step-by-step explanation:
it would be easier if you converted all fractions to improper fractions
so 3 1/5 would equal 16/5 and 2 4/5 would equal to 14/5
: to solve this you would need the same common denomenator,
to do this you can multiply 5 and 3 by something to make the lowest common denominator, which would be 15
thus
multiplying first fraction by 3 and the second by 5
42/15 - 10/15 = 32/15
now 32/15 divided by 14/5
the rule for dividing fractions, is flipping the fraction which you will be using to divide, and then multiplying it to the first fraction:
multiplied by
thus, answer is 160/196