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djyliett [7]
2 years ago
6

CAN YOU HELP ME WOTH GEOMETRY! It's due TONIGHT!

Mathematics
1 answer:
mash [69]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

look down below

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that AB = DC, and BC = AD, ∠B = ∠D because they are given

So, ΔABC ≅ ΔCDA because of SAS congruency

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Cindy works two jobs to make ends meet. Both jobs pay her an hourly wage. At the first job, Cindy earns $6.50 per hour. At the s
notsponge [240]
The answer is B

6.5x + 1025y= 372
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3 0
3 years ago
Write a 2 column proof showing segment ML is congruent to Segment OL.
Allisa [31]

The statements and Reasons correspond to each other by the numbers listed.

Let C = congruent in place of the congruent symbol. I don't have it on my keyboard.

Statements

1. Side MN C Side ON.

2. LN is C to LN.

3. Angle LNM is C to angle ONL

4. Angle NML is C to angle NOL

5. ML is C to OL

Reasons

1. Given

2. Reflexive Property

3. Definition of angle bisector

4. SAS Postulate

5. Side NL cuts MO in half

6 0
2 years ago
Is a measure of 26 inches​ "far away" from a mean of 16 ​inches? As someone with knowledge of​ statistics, you answer​ "it depen
alexandr402 [8]

Answer: Hello!

In a normal distribution, between the mean and the mean plus the standar deviation, there is a 34.1% of the data set, between the mean plus the standar deviation, and the mean between two times the standard deviation, there is a 16.2% of the data set, and so on.

If our mean is 16 inches, and the measure is 26 inches, then the difference is 10 inches between them.

a) if the standar deviation is 2 inches, then you are 10/2 = 5 standar deviations from the mean.

b) yes, is really far away from the mean, in a normal distribution a displacement of 5 standar deviations has a very small probability.

c) Now the standar deviation is 7, so now 26 is in the range between 1 standar deviation and 2 standar deviations away from the mean.

Then this you have a 16% of the data, then in this case, 26 inches is not far away from the mean.

3 0
2 years ago
Welp❌❌❌❌❗️⭕️welp welp
Harman [31]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

:D

8 0
3 years ago
I need help plz I really need
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

Option 3

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the same reason that Pythagorean's Theorem works. The area made up of the X and Y Regions (the squares of the two legs of the triangle) is equal to Region Z (the square of the hypotenuse)

6 0
2 years ago
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