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vichka [17]
3 years ago
6

Consider a stock priced at $30 with a standard deviation of 0.3. The risk-free rate is 0.05. There are put and call options avai

lable at exercise prices of 30 and a time to expiration of six months. The calls are priced at $2.89 and the puts cost $2.15. There are no dividends on the stock and the options are European. Assume that all transactions consist of 100 shares or one contract (100 options). Suppose the investor constructed a covered call. At expiration the stock price is $27. What is the investor's profit
Business
1 answer:
Elza [17]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

-$11

Explanation:

Covered Call involves Buy stocks and Sell call options

Earning $2.89 by selling call. So, at  stock price of $27, the payoff from options is $2.89 per option

Options Profits = $2.89 * 100

Options Profits = $289

Profit of stock = ($27 - $30) * 100

Profit of stock = -$300

Investor Net Profit = Profit of stock + Options Profits

Investor Net Profit = -$300 + $289

Investor Net Profit = -$11

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What is the maximum price that government allows sellers to charge
oksian1 [2.3K]
I think it's called a price ceiling. At least, that's what I think it is.
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3 years ago
Even though the moving averages help highlight the long-run trend of a time series, the moving-average model is not designed for
kobusy [5.1K]

Answer:

Moving averages <em>cannot be used to make future forecasts successfully because certain events like demand, supply ,quality and external factors such as competitions</em> cannot be determined with the use of Moving averages, and these factors have a huge impact on prices

Explanation:

Moving averages are generated / obtained using data from events that occurred previously hence they highlight the long-run trend of a time series, but <em>they cannot be used to make future forecasts successfully because certain events like demand, supply ,quality and external factors such as competitions</em> cannot be determined with the use of Moving averages. and these factors have a huge impact on prices

4 0
3 years ago
When a "bubble" arises, asset prices are driven by:
Crazy boy [7]

Answer:

d. shifts in market psychology and successive waves of irrational exuberance.

Explanation:

Bubble in respect to financial market means an unexpected and non-explainable reason. This although the economists believes arises because of the emotional attachment and effects on an asset. As for example: when an asset is made using the specific raw material which is discovered to be precious in the terms it is ancient then, automatically the price of the asset increases in the market.

Thus, this is nothing but a market psychology that is basically an effect of emotional concerns of individual mindset, which is irrational.

This theory is explain by Keynesian the economists.

7 0
3 years ago
In the​ past, Peter​ Kelle's tire dealership in Baton Rouge sold an average of 1 comma 000 radials each year. In the past 2​ yea
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

Explanation:

For computing the demand for each sale, first we have to compute the average sale for each season which is show below:

Average sale in fall = (240 + 260) ÷ 2 = 250

Average sale in winter = (340 + 300)  ÷ 2 = 320

Average sale in spring = (140 + 160)  ÷ 2 = 150

Average sale in summer = (320 + 240) ÷ 2 = 280

Demand for next fall = (250  ÷ 1,000) × 1,200 = 300

Demand for next winter = (320  ÷ 1,000) × 1,200 = 384

Demand for next spring = (150  ÷ 1,000) × 1,200 = 180

Demand for next summer = 1,200 - (300+384+180) = 336

6 0
3 years ago
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