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vichka [17]
2 years ago
6

Consider a stock priced at $30 with a standard deviation of 0.3. The risk-free rate is 0.05. There are put and call options avai

lable at exercise prices of 30 and a time to expiration of six months. The calls are priced at $2.89 and the puts cost $2.15. There are no dividends on the stock and the options are European. Assume that all transactions consist of 100 shares or one contract (100 options). Suppose the investor constructed a covered call. At expiration the stock price is $27. What is the investor's profit
Business
1 answer:
Elza [17]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

-$11

Explanation:

Covered Call involves Buy stocks and Sell call options

Earning $2.89 by selling call. So, at  stock price of $27, the payoff from options is $2.89 per option

Options Profits = $2.89 * 100

Options Profits = $289

Profit of stock = ($27 - $30) * 100

Profit of stock = -$300

Investor Net Profit = Profit of stock + Options Profits

Investor Net Profit = -$300 + $289

Investor Net Profit = -$11

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When buyers use ___________________ to draw inferences about the quality of products, then markets may have trouble reaching ___
bagirrra123 [75]

Answer:

Market price; Equilibrium price

Explanation:

The equilibrium price is the market price where the quantity of goods supplied is equal to the quantity of goods demanded. This is the point at which the demand and supply curves in the market intersect. It become hard to reach equilibrium price and quantity when customers infer the quality of a product by its price cos that will inform their purchasing decision.

7 0
3 years ago
The following information was taken from the records of Roland Carlson Inc. for the year 2017: income tax applicable to income f
avanturin [10]

Answer:

Following are the  solution to the given question:

Explanation:

Revenue before continuing business                                      585000

less:income tax                                                                         -187000 

Continuous business revenue                                                398,000

Operations stopped

Loss of non-compliance                                    -75000

Less: Applicable drop in income tax from        25500           - 49500

net sales                                                                                     348500

Popular inventory per share

Continued operating revenue [\frac{398000}{100000}] \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \$3.98

Losses on disrupted businesses, tax net[\frac{-49500}{100000}] Net-0.495

Net profits [\frac{348500}{100000}] \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ 3.485

8 0
2 years ago
Match the items according to their impact on aggregate demand (AD).
postnew [5]

Answer:

A recession occurring in a trading partners economy

8 0
2 years ago
The Housing Financial Discrimination Act (Holden Act) prohibits all financial institutions from discriminating in real estate lo
Rainbow [258]

Answer:

Redlining

Explanation:

Redlining stems from discrimination that consists denial of services, maybe financial based on the group one may fall under such as race, ethnicity or location. The Holden act(1977) is a real estate act of California meant to protect individuals from discriminations such as ones that involve denial of mortgage loan on the basis of something other than the credit worthiness of the individual . These discriminations could take the form of mortgage loan and, insurance loan denials or other financial services based on creditworthiness history of the group the person may fall under and not necessarily the individual's qualifications on his own

8 0
2 years ago
The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c
lidiya [134]

Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

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After Allowance for doubtful expense

Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200

= $2,675

4 0
3 years ago
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