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aev [14]
3 years ago
14

Most labor economists believe that the supply of labor is a. less elastic than the demand, and, therefore, firms bear most of th

e burden of the payroll tax. b. more elastic than the demand, and, therefore, firms bear most of the burden of the payroll tax. c. more elastic than the demand, and, therefore, workers bear most of the burden of the payroll tax. d. less elastic than the demand, and, therefore, workers bear most of the burden of the payroll tax.
Business
1 answer:
goldfiish [28.3K]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

d

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price of the good.

Price elasticity of demand = percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price  

If the absolute value of price elasticity is greater than one, it means demand is elastic. Elastic demand means that quantity demanded is sensitive to price changes.  

Demand is inelastic if a small change in price has little or no effect on quantity demanded. The absolute value of elasticity would be less than one

Demand is unit elastic if a small change in price has an equal and proportionate effect on quantity demanded.  

Infinitely elastic demand is perfectly elastic demand. Demand falls to zero when price increases  

Perfectly inelastic demand is demand where there is no change in the quantity demanded regardless of changes in price.

The supply of labour usually exceeds the demand for labour. So, the supply of labour is less elastic. as a result workers bear the burden of tax

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Suppose that there are many stocks in the security market and that the characteristics of stocks A and B are given as follows: S
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

0.135 or 13.5%

Explanation:

Given in the question are the following:

ERA = Expected return of Stock A = 12% = 0.12

ERB = Expected return of Stock B = 19% = 0.19

SDA = Standard deviation of Stock A = 3% = 0.03

SDB = Standard deviation of Stock B = 9% = 0.09

CAB = Correlation between A and B = -1

The correlation of -1 between Stock A and Stock B indicates that there a perfect negative correlation between the two stocks. Therefore, we can create a risk-free portfolio which its rate of return will be the risk-free rate in equilibrium.  

If we let wA denotes the proportion of investment in Stock A, and let wB denotes the proportion of investment in Stock B, the proportion of this portfolio can be obtained by setting its standard deviation equal to zero. Since there is a perfect negative correlation, the standard deviation of this portfolio (SDP) can be given as follows:

Absolute value [(wA × SDA) – (wB × SDB)] = SDP …………………………………….. (1)

Note that wB = (1 – wA) since the sum of the weight must be equal to 1.

Substituting all the relevant values into equation and set SDP = 0, we have  

[(0.03 × wA) − (0.11 × (1 - wA))] = 0

0.03wA – 0.11 + 0.11wA = 0

0.03wA + 0.11wA = 0.11

0.14wA = 0.11

wA = 0.11 ÷ 0.14 = 0.785714285714286

Since wB = 1 –wA, therefore:

wB = 1 - 0.785714285714286 = 0.214285714285714

The expected rate of return of the portfolio (ERP) can be estimated as follows:

ERP = (wA × ERA) + (wB × ERB)  ................................. (2)

Substituting all the relevant values into equation (2), we have:

ERP = (0.785714285714286 × 0.12) + (0.214285714285714 × 0.19)  

       = 0.0942857142857143 + 0.0407142857142857

ERP = 0.135 or 13.5%

Therefore, the value of the risk-free rate must be 13.5%.

4 0
3 years ago
Blight Financial has an investment in bonds issued by Searing Industries that are classified as trading securities. At December
Paul [167]

Answer:

b. Credit to Fair value adjustment for $5,000

Explanation:

Particulars                                Amount

Beginning balance of fair value adjustment   $20,000

Less: Unrealized gain on Dec 31, year 3         <u>$15,000</u>  ($515,000-$500,000)

Credit to Fair value adjustment                      <u>$5,000</u>

So, Credit to Fair value adjustment for $5,000 will be included in the related journal entry dated December 31, Year 3.

7 0
3 years ago
11. Brooke Company desires net income of $720,000 when it has $2,000,000 of fixed costs and variable costs of 60% of sales. Cont
Mila [183]

Answer:

b. $2,720,000

Explanation:

The contribution margin is what is left after subtracting the variable cost from the sales.

From there, the company pays their fixed cost and the rest is net income.

In this case you have a company desiring to get 720,000 net income after paying their 2,000,000 fixed cost

So we come up with with formula:

Contribution Margin - Fixed Cost = Net Income

Replacing the know values, we get the unknow value. Like it was a solve for X question:

X - 2,000,000 = 720,000\\X = 2,000,000 + 720,000\\X = 2,720,000

8 0
4 years ago
MOSS COMPANY Selected Balance Sheet Information December 31, 2018 and 2017 2018 2017 Current assets Cash $ 90,650 $ 32,800 Accou
Andru [333]

Answer:

 $65,250

Explanation:

The preparation of the Cash Flows from Operating Activities—Indirect Method is shown below:

Cash flow from Operating activities - Indirect method

Net income $5,000

Adjustment made:

Add : Depreciation expense $48,000

Add: Decrease in accounts receivable $13,000 ($31,000 - $44,000)

Less: Increase in inventory -$10,700 ($66,000 - $55,300)

Add: Increase in accounts payable $10,700 ($42,400 - $31,700)

Less: Decrease in income tax payable-$750  ($2,650 - $3,400)

Total of Adjustments $60,250

Net Cash flow from Operating activities                       $65,250

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3 years ago
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Alex73 [517]
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3 years ago
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