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Alex73 [517]
3 years ago
10

Instructions: The polygons in each pair are similar. Find the missing side length.

Mathematics
1 answer:
adoni [48]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

20

Step-by-step explanation:

<u>25 </u>  =     <u> x</u>

20           16

(25*16)/20 = 20

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Need some help please. thank you :)
rodikova [14]

The answer the third option (4,2)

5 0
3 years ago
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indicate the equation of the line, in standard form, that is the perpendicular bisector of the segment with endpoints (-1,6) and
vladimir1956 [14]

The equation of the line, in standard form, that is the perpendicular bisector of the segment with endpoints (-1,6) and (5, 5) is <u>12x - 2y = 13</u>.

In the question, we are asked to indicate the equation of the line, in standard form, that is the perpendicular bisector of the segment with endpoints (-1,6) and (5, 5).

The slope of the line with endpoints (-1,6) and (5,5), can be calculated as:

m = (6 - 5)/(-1 - 5) = 1/(-6) = -1/6.

Thus, the slope of the perpendicular bisector = -1/m = -1/(-1/6) = 6.

The perpendicular bisector passes through the midpoint of the line with endpoints (-1,6) and (5,5), which can be calculated as:

(x₁, y₁) = ( {(-1 + 5)/2},{(6 + 5)/2} ),

or, (x₁,y₁) = (2, 11/2).

Thus, the required equation can be shown as:

(y - 11/2) = 6(x - 2), which can be shown in the standard form as follows:

(2y - 11)/2 = 6x - 12,

or, 2y - 11 = 12x - 24,

or, 12x - 2y = 13.

Thus, the equation of the line, in standard form, that is the perpendicular bisector of the segment with endpoints (-1,6) and (5, 5) is <u>12x - 2y = 13</u>.

Learn more about the equation of perpendicular bisector at

brainly.com/question/20608689

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
The expression 34−10+3+2=78 is an example of
Jobisdone [24]

Answer: simplifying expression

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Yesenia records the ages of 9 friends. A
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

did not get the point of the sum

3 0
3 years ago
Which is the equivilent to sin-1(cos(pi/2))
GarryVolchara [31]

Answer:

Expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

If we write a term in the the form of y = cos(π/2)

Then the value of y will be = cos (180/2) = cos(90) = 0

Now we know the value of y is = 0

And if we will find the sin value of y then

sin y = sin (0) = 0

⇒ Then y = sin^{-1}(0) = 0

Therefore we can say that the expression sin-1(cos(pi/2)) is equivalent to 0.

7 0
3 years ago
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