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sertanlavr [38]
3 years ago
10

The Baldwin Company has just purchased $40,900,000 of plant and equipment that has an estimated useful life of 15 years. The exp

ected salvage value at the end of 15 years is $4,090,000. What will the book value of this purchase (exclude all other plant and equipment) be after its third year of use
Business
1 answer:
Neko [114]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$38,448,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine What will the book value of this purchase

First step

Depreciation = (cost - salvage)/useful life

Depreciation= (40,900,000 - 4,090,000 )/15

Depreciation=36810000/15

Depreciation=2454000

Now let determine the

Book value=Cost -Depreciation

Book value=$40,900,000-$2,454,000

Book value=$38,448,000

Therefore the book value of this purchase is$38,448,000

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Privett Company Accounts payable $ 30,000 Accounts receivable 35,000 Accrued liabilities 7,000 Cash 25,000 Intangible assets 40,
erica [24]

Answer:

$113,000

Explanation:

As we know ,

Working capital = Total current assets - total current liabilities

where,

Total current assets = Accounts receivable + cash + inventory + marketable securities + prepaid expenses

= $35,000 + $25,000 + $72,000 + $36,000 + $2,000

= $170,000

And, the total current liabilities = Accounts payable + accrued liabilities + short term notes payable

=  $30,000 + $7,000 + $20,000

= $57,000

Now put the values to the above formula

So, the value would  be equal  to

=  $170,000 - $57,000

= $113,000

3 0
3 years ago
Prepare journal entries to record the following transactions and events, based on the assumption that the nonprofit uses a singl
stira [4]

Answer:

1. Apple Stocks             Dr. $75,000

  Deferred Donation Income   Cr. $75,000

2. Apple Stocks Dr. $1,500

        Gain on Apple Stocks   Cr. $1,500

3. Cash         Dr. $ 76,000

   Gain/Loss on Apple stocks Dr.$1,500

                      Apple Stocks             Cr.$76,500

Explanation:

1. when stocks are received subject to a condition that we can't recognize donation income. therefore it is recorded as liability. please note that deferred income is called as liability.

2. When value of stocks increase, asset stock of apple also increase by differential amount.

3. when asset is sold, the loss is recognized and assets are knocked off from books and cash asset is recorded.

5 0
3 years ago
DJ and Nicolette paid $1,600 in qualifying expenses for their daughter Nicole to attend the University of Nevada. Nicole is a so
aliina [53]

Answer and Explanation:

As we know that the credit amount should be allowed a qualified deduction of 100% till $2,000 and the next 25% is $2,000

In the given situation, the credit amount would be

= $1,600 × 100%

= $1,600

As the AGI is $175,000 i.e. exceeded the prescribed amount i.e. $160,000 so it would be phased out till $180,000

So, after considering the phase out application limits, the credit is

= $1,600 ×  ($180,000 - $175,000) ÷ ($180,000 - $160,000)

= $400  

So, the total credit is $400 out of which $160 is refundable and the remaining balance i.e. $240 would be non-refundable

7 0
2 years ago
In analyzing the value of the firm as a function of capital structure, the present value of the tax shield benefit is offset by
Hoochie [10]

Answer:

The correct answer to the following question will be Option D (Financial distress and agency costs).

Explanation:

  • A cost of an agency is a form of company's internal expense that comes from an employee working on behalf of action of the principle. Agency costs usually occur from core redundancies, confusion, and delays, such as shareholder and management conflicts of interest.
  • Distress expense applies to the expenses that a financially distressed company faces beyond the business cost, such as increased capital expenses. Troubled companies tend to have a tougher time fulfilling their financial responsibilities, which turns into a higher chance of default.
  • When evaluating the company's value as a feature of market structure, the present value of the tax shield gain is balanced by the current value of the anticipated financial distress and agency expenses, which results in an ideal internal market structure.

Therefore, Option C is the right answer.

5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is a correct formula when markup is based on selling price
oksano4ka [1.4K]
<span>perhaps u want the formula for the percentage of markup, giving the cost and selling price.
..(selling price) = (cost) + (Markup)
..(selling price) - (cost) = (markup)
so,
..(markup)/(selling price)*100% = ((selling price) - (cost))/(selling price) * 100%
.. =(1 -(cost)/(selling price))*100%

</span>
5 0
2 years ago
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