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Genrish500 [490]
3 years ago
7

How much force is needed to accelerate a 70kg car at 10m/s^2?​

Mathematics
1 answer:
shepuryov [24]3 years ago
3 0
Momentum (p) is equal to the product of an object's mass (m) and its change in velocity (v).

Change in velocity (v) results in change in momentum (p), which is equal to impulse. Impulse (J) is also equal to an applied force (F) over a period of time (t).

Combining p=mv and J=F t together:

m (v final - v initial) = F t

(2,500 kg) (70 m/s - 30 m/s) = F (10 s)

Solving for F we get:

10,000 N of force
You might be interested in
When you have a triangle and 2 of 3 angles are given the degrees and the last one is unknown, you subtract the two given degrees
storchak [24]

No, that's not right.  Sadly, the answer you entered on the
attached drawing is incorrect.  It's slightly more complicated
than that ... only slightly.

First, think about this for a second:  What if the two GIVEN angles
on the drawing had the same number of degrees ?  Then by the
method you've been using, you would subtract them from each
other, and that would give you zero.  So you would say that the
last angle is zero degrees ?  Can you see that this doesn't really
work ?

Here's how it's really done:

It all rests on a rule about triangles.  This is ALWAYS true, and
you should memorize it:

           When you add up the degrees of all three angles
           inside a triangle, the sum is ALWAYS 180 degrees.

So now, when you're given two of the angles, you know that
the unknown one must be exactly enough to bring the sum of
ALL of them up to 180 degrees.

Work it like this:

-- Take the two given angles.
-- ADD them.
-- Subtract their SUM from 180.
   Now you have the third angle.

In the drawing you attached:

-- The given angles are  39  and  102 .
-- Add them:  39 + 102 = 141
-- Subtract the sum from 180:    180 - 141 = 39 .
   The unknown angle is 39 degrees.

But that's the same as one of the given angles ! ?   :-(    ?    :-(

That's OK.  It's perfectly fine for two of the angles, or sometimes
even all three, to be the same size.  They just have to all add up
to 180 degrees, and everything is fine.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the resulting ordered pair if the value of the independent variable is 5?
eduard
F(5) = -2 * 5 + 1 = -9
the pair is (5, -9)
6 0
4 years ago
The function f(x)=2x−5 is a linear function. Let g(x) represent f(x) after a horizontal translation 3 units to the right.
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer:

the equation of g(x) is, g(x) = 2x-11  

Step-by-step explanation:

The transformation of the function is defined as:

g(x)=f(x+b)

where, b represents the horizontal shift.

if b> 0 then, the function f(x) shifts b units left and if b< 0 ; then the function shifts b units right  

As per the statement:

The function f(x)=2x−5 is a linear function.

It is given that:

g(x) represent f(x) after a horizontal translation 3 units to the right.

⇒g(x) =f(x-3)

then

g(x) = 2(x-3)-5

⇒g(x) = 2x-6-5

⇒g(x) = 2x-11

Therefore, the equation of g(x) is, g(x) = 2x-11

8 0
3 years ago
According to a 2013 study by the Pew Research Center, 15% of adults in the United States do not use the Internet (Pew Research C
Pavel [41]

Answer:

a) For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

b) P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

c) P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

d) P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".  

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n p)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Part a

For this case we can use the binomial model since we assume independent events and the same probability for each trial is the same p =0.15

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=0)

And replacing we got:

P(X=0)=(10C0)(0.15)^0 (1-0.15)^{10-0}=0.1969

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

P(X=3)

And replacing we got:

P(X=3)=(10C3)(0.15)^3 (1-0.15)^{10-3}=0.1298

Part d

For this cae we want thi probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complment rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

And using the result from part a we got:

P(X \geq 1)= 1-P(X

4 0
3 years ago
Leo sold candy bars for a fundraiser. He spent $25 on a box of candy bars and
Ratling [72]

Answer:  

He sold 47 candy bars  

Step-by-step explanation:  

Add 25 and 69 (94)  

Divide by 2 and you get 47  

Mark me as brainliest if this helps!

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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