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Mademuasel [1]
3 years ago
9

6. Sammi spun a spinner with 5 equal parts labeled 1-5. If she spins the spinner 20 times, how many times should she expect to s

pin a 2? A 4 B 3 C 8 5​
Mathematics
1 answer:
Tasya [4]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a 1/5 chance she spins a 1. (1/5 = 20% = 0.2)

She spins 20 times:

20 * 0.2 = 4

So she should expect getting 4 twos.

If there was anything that you didn't understand, just comment your question below this answer!

Have a good day! (●'◡'●)

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Sophie borrowed $2000 and took 3 years to repay the loan and $900 interest.
dedylja [7]
I = p * r * n

i is the interest
p is the principal
r is the interest rate per time period
n is the number of time periods.

in your problem:

i = 900
p = 2000
r = what you want to find
n = 3 years

formula becomes 900 = 2000 * r * 3

solve for r to get r = 900 / 2000 / 3 = .15

that's .15 interest rate per year = 15% per year.

at a nominal interest rate of .15 per year, the interest rate per month would be .15/12 = .0125 per month.

the remaining balance at the end of 6 month is equal to 1907.140183

7 0
3 years ago
What is the solution for the inequality given below? Show work.<br> 3x - 4 &lt; -19
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

x

Step-by-step explanation:

3x-4

Add 4 to both sides

3x

Divide both sides by 3

x

Hope this helps!

(Please mark brainliest)

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
ASAP! GIVING BRAINLIEST! Please read the question THEN answer CORRECTLY! NO guessing. I say no guessing because people usually g
daser333 [38]

Answer:

C. F(x) = 4x² + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

→The function F(x) shifted 1 unit upwards, meaning there needs to be a 1 being added to the function.

→In addition, the function F(x) has grown narrower, compared to the function G(x). This is from the absolute value of a number being greater than 1, which is being multiplied.

<u>This means the correct answer should be "C. F(x) = 4x² + 1."</u>

8 0
3 years ago
-64=(2cos(pi/2)+2i sin(pi/2))^n..... n=??​
zvonat [6]

Answer:

The real solution is n=6.

Step-by-step explanation:

\cos(\frac{\pi}{2})=0 while \sin(\frac{\pi}{2})=1

So the equation becomes:

-64=(2(0)+2i(1))^n

-64=(0+2i)^n

-64=(2i)^n

We know that 2^6=64. So let's see what n=6 gives us:

(2i)^6=64i^6=64i^4i^2=64(1)(-1)=-64.

-64  is the result we wanted.

n=6 is therefore a solution.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the answer??
Alchen [17]

Answer: 7.8 ⋅ 10^{4}

Step-by-step explanation:

To write a linear expression in standard form, rearrange the terms in alphabetical order.

7.8 ⋅ 10^{4}

4 0
3 years ago
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