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Rudik [331]
2 years ago
9

Divide £60 in a ratio of 2:1

Mathematics
2 answers:
Fofino [41]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

the division according to ratio is :

£40 and £20

Step-by-step explanation:

here's the solution: -

let the ratios be 2x and x

now, we know ;

=》2x + x = 60

=》3x = 60

=》x = 60 ÷ 3

=》x = 20

so, the the divisions will be :

=》2x = 2 × 20 = £40

=》x = £20

gavmur [86]2 years ago
3 0

£40 and £20

Step-by-step explanation:

let the parts be 2x and x (2:1)

2x+x=£60

or, 3x= £60

or, x= £20

2x=2×£20=£40

x=£20

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In a right triangle, one leg is 20 cm and the hypotenuse is 30 cm. To the nearest hundredth of a cm, find the length of the miss
max2010maxim [7]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Use Pythagoras’ theorem

square of hypotenuse = sum of squares of two other sides

let the missing side be d

30^2 = 20^2 + d^2

600 = 400 + d^2

d^2 = 200

d = square root of 200

d = 14.142 cm

3 0
3 years ago
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Please include work
OLga [1]

Answer:

9.     6k + 5 and 2k - 1.

10.    5√2 .

Step-by-step explanation:

9.    Area = 12k^2 + 4k - 5

Factoring:

12k^2 - 6k + 10k - 5

= 6k(2k - 1) + 5(2k - 1)

= (6k + 5)(2k - 1)

So the required lengths are 6k + 5 and 2k - 1.

10.  The ratio of a leg to the hypotenuse is  1: √2 so if the hypotenus = 10 the length of a leg is 10 / √2  

= 10 √2  / 2

= 5√2 .

7 0
3 years ago
If a movie starts at 10:40am and lasts for 1h and 59min, then what time should the movie end.
OverLord2011 [107]

Answer:

12:39

Step-by-step explanation:

First, to make it easier, round the amount of time the movie lasts to the nearest hour. In this case, the movie "lasts" for 2 hours.

Add 2 hours to 10:40am. Note that when it hits 12, the am becomes pm.

10:40 + 2:00 = 12:40

Now, subtract 1 minute from the amount (1 hr 60 min - 1 hr 59 min = 1 min)

12:40 - 0:01 = 12:39

12:39 pm should be the time the movie ends.

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A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

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          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

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A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

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The magnitude of a vector has to do with the vector length that is used to show the initial and final position of the vector.

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This refers to the quantity that has a magnitude and direction and can be used to show position.

Hence, we can see that the vector, magnitude, and the directional angle values are not given so a general overview was given.

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