Please help me! This is due tomorrow and I really need some help! Thank you.
Structural Unemployment is one that is permanent or long lived and Cyclical Unemployment does not have enough demand in the economy.
Explanation:
Structural unemployment results with a permanent dislocations within markets and a mismatch between skills in growing company needs. When the overall goods and service in an economy cannot support full employment that results with Cyclical unemployment.
The difference between Europe and US is, US has 50 states under one country whereas Europe is a union between countries.
Krugman uses the tax savings to buy their own stock, The evidence is overwhelming.
Answer: d. A price near $60
Explanation:
The Preferred Stock was selling at $56 then a notice was circulated that RMO would be calling the stock at a price of $60.
This $60 is more than the current $56 and so this will need to reflect in the price of the stock. The adjustment will cause the Preferred stock to start trading near $60 as traders will seek to take advantage of the impending call by buying at a lower price and thus making a bit of profit when the stock is called at $60. The market will adjust to this because the Preferred stock will be perceived as undervalued. A price closer to the Call price will therefore become the new price to properly value the stock.
Answer:
$25,000
Explanation:
The computation of the break-even point in sales dollars is shown below:
Break even point = (Fixed expenses) ÷ (Profit volume Ratio)
where,
Contribution margin per unit = Selling price per unit - Variable expense per unit
= $100 - $60
= $40
And, Profit volume ratio = (Contribution margin per unit) ÷ (selling price per unit) × 100
So, the Profit volume ratio = ($40) ÷ ($100) × 100 = 40%
And, the fixed expenses is $10,000
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would equal to
= ($10,000) ÷ (40%)
= $25,000
