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forsale [732]
3 years ago
13

A tax structured so that people with the same income pay the same percentage of their income in taxes is called a (an)__________

__. a. flat tax. b. regressive tax. c. progressive tax. d. excise tax.
Business
2 answers:
Goshia [24]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

c. progressive tax

djyliett [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

c. progressive tax

Explanation:

Progressive tax can be regarded as one of the tax structure whereby the tax payer that receive higher incomes in the state pay a higher share of taxes from the income they made, which is different from those that receive Lower income. It is a tax system whereby when there is increase in tax rate then the taxable amount increases too. It should be noted that the tax structured where people with the same income pay the same percentage of their income in taxes is reffered to as progressive tax. wealth/property tax is one of the example of progressive tax.

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You work for a municipal government in the HR department. Your supervisor has asked you to prepare a brief informational report
Anna007 [38]

The best way to show your municipal government employees the benefits of health care is through an informational poster in the office and an email to each.

In most companies, there is a human resources department that is responsible for hiring employees and their well-being.

In this case, it is a benefit in the health service to which employees can enroll independently, but they do not know-how.

The best option to disseminate this information is through an informational poster that specifies the steps to register and locate it in the office because their employees will be able to see it when they go to work.

Likewise, a copy of the poster will be sent to their emails, and they can sign up for this benefit in their free time.

Learn more: brainly.com/question/15720119

5 0
3 years ago
MILLS ALLOCATES MANUFACTURING OVERHEAD TO PRODUCTION BASED ON STANDARD DIRECT LABOR HOURS. MILLS REPORTED THE FOLLOWING ACTUAL R
tekilochka [14]

Answer:

1. Compute the variable overhead cost and efficiency variances and fixed overhead cost and volume variances.

  • variable overhead cost variance = $1,000 unfavorable
  • variable efficiency variance = -$1,200 favorable
  • fixed overhead costs = $1,500 unfavorable
  • fixed overhead volume variance = -$100 favorable

2. EXPLAIN (as best you can) why the variances are favorable or unfavorable. Based on cost and efficiency budget standards.

  • variable overhead cost variance is unfavorable because actual variable overhead costs per unit are higher than budgeted.
  • variable efficiency variance is favorable because the company used less direct labor hours than budgeted to produce a higher amount of units (1,600 vs. 2,000).
  • fixed overhead costs are unfavorable because total fixed overhead costs were much higher than budgeted, but most of this variance can be explained by higher output.
  • fixed overhead volume variance are favorable because a higher volume was produced using less hours than budgeted.

Explanation:

Static budget variable overhead $1,200

Actual variable overhead $4,000

Static budget fixed overhead $1,600

Actual fixed overhead $3,100

Static budget direct labor hours 800 hours

Actual direct labor hours 1,600

Static budget number of units 400 units

Actual units produced 1,000

Standard direct labor hours 2 hours per unit

Actual direct labor hours 1.6 per unit

standard variable rate = $1,200 / 400 units = $3 per unit

actual variable rate = $4,000 / 1,000 units = $4 per unit

standard fixed rate = $1,600 / 800 hours = $2 per hour

actual fixed rate = $3,100 / 1,600 hours = $1.9375 per hour

variable overhead cost variance = actual costs - (standard rate x actual units) = $4,000 - ($3 x 1,000) = $1,000 unfavorable

variable efficiency variance = (actual hours x standard rate) - (standard hours x standard rate) = (1,600 × $3) − (2,000 x $3) = $4,800 - $6,000 = -$1,200 favorable

fixed overhead costs = actual overhead costs - budgeted overhead costs = $3,100 - $1,600 = $1,500 unfavorable

fixed overhead volume variance = (actual fixed rate x actual hours) - (standard rate x actual hours) = ($1.9375 x 1,600) - ($ x 1,600) = $3,100 - $3,200 = -$100 favorable

5 0
4 years ago
Assume that Botswana Life Insurance (BOTS LIFE) pays no cash dividends currently and is not expected to for the next 5 years. It
Advocard [28]

The intrinsic value of company's share is $89.90

The share price is expected to rise in the incoming years

The intrinsic value of share remains the same when payout ratio reduces to 20%

What is the firm growth rate in each of the future years?

The growth rate of the company, which is also the growth rate for earnings per share in each of the first 5 years

Growth rate in the first 5 years=ROE*reinvestment rate

ROE=20%

reinvestment rate=100%(all earnings would be reinvested)

Growth rate in the first 5 years=100%*20%

Growth rate in the first 5 years=20%

Earnings in 5 years=current EPS*(1+growth rate)^5

Earnings in 5 years=$10*(1+20%)^5

Earnings in 5 years=$24.8832

Growth rate for year 6 and beyond=15%*(1-40%)

Growth rate for year 6 and beyond=9.00%

Earnings in year 6=$24.8832*(1+9%)

earnings in year 6=$27.122688

Out of the EPS, 40% would be paid as dividends

dividends in year 6=$27.122688*40%

dividends in year 6=$10.8490752

We can compute the share price at the end of year using the present value formula of perpetuity

share price in year 5=$10.8490752/(15%-9%)

share price in year 5=$180.81792

share price now=$180.81792/(1+15%)^5

share price now=$89.90

The fact that share price and the intrinsic value are the same implies that share price would increase over the next year and the year after because the dividends would continue to growth at a constant rate of 9%

Out of the EPS, 20% would be paid as dividends

dividends in year 6=$27.122688*20%

dividends in year 6=$5.4245376

growth rate=15%*(1-20%)=12.00%

We can compute the share price at the end of year using the present value formula of perpetuity

share price in year 5=$5.4245376/(15%-12%)

share price in year 5=$180.81792

share price now=$180.81792/(1+15%)^5

share price now=$89.90

The share price in payout ratio from 40% to 20% has no effect on the intrinsic value since the share prices are the same under the two scenarios

Find out more about intrinsic value on:brainly.com/question/14720349

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
BDJ Co. wants to issue new 19-year bonds for some much-needed expansion projects. The company currently has 10.3 percent coupon
defon

Answer:

The coupon rate is 10.3%

Explanation:

The interest to set on the bond in order to sell them at par can be computed using rate formula in excel:

=rate(nper,pmt,pv,fv)

nper is the number of times the bond would pay interest over its time to maturity which is 19*2=38

pmt is the interest payment semi-annually at $1000*10.3%/2=$51.5

pv is the price of the bond which is the par value of $1000

fv is the value at redemption which is also $1000

=rate(38,51.5,-1000,1000)

rate=5.15%

this is the semi-annual rate ,the yearly yield to maturity is 5.15%*2=10.30%

When a bond sells at par the yield to maturity is the same as the coupon rate

5 0
3 years ago
Cullumber Company purchased a new machine on October 1, 2022, at a cost of $90,880. The company estimated that the machine has a
marin [14]

Answer:

The workings are made below;

Explanation:

Depreciation Expense for 2022   =($90,880-$,8,640)/8=$10,280*3/12=$2,570

Depreciation Expense for 2023=$10,280  ($90,880-$8,640)/8

The depreciation for 2022 is calculated  on pro rata basis from the date of purchase till December 31,2022.

Where as depreciation for 2023 is charged on full year basis as the asset was used for the whole year.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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