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barxatty [35]
2 years ago
9

Describe carefully the main difference between the Keynesian approach and the real business cycle theory in terms of explaining

the sources of business cycles.
Business
1 answer:
yulyashka [42]2 years ago
5 0

Answer: For the real business cycle, technical fluctuation that triggers changes in outputs and employment, while for the Keynesian, income and output depend largely on the volume of employment.

Explanation:

The real business cycle theory assumes that when the market undergoes variation in it's ability to turn inputs into product, there is a technical fluctuation that triggers changes in outputs and employment

While the Keynesian, it's sees business cycles as periodic fluctuations of employment, income and their output. This income and output depend largely on the volume of employment.

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Lark had net income for 2018 of S103,000. Lark had 38,000 shares of common stock outstanding at the beginning of the year and 44
Kryger [21]

Answer:

price earning ratio = 19.44 times

so correct option is c. 19.44

Explanation:

given data

net income =  $103,000

common stock outstanding beginning = 38,000 shares

common stock outstanding ending = 44,000 shares

preferred stock outstanding = 5,000 shares

paid preferred dividends = $29,000

common stock = $35.00 per share

market price preferred stock = $55.00 per share

to find out

Lark's price earnings ratio

solution

first we get here average no of equity share that is

average no of equity share = common stock outstanding beginning + common stock outstanding ending ÷ 2

average no of equity share = \frac{38000+44000}{2}

average no of equity share = 41000 share

and

earning per share will be here as

earning per share = ( net income - paid preferred dividends ) ÷ average no of equity share

earning per share =  \frac{103000-29000}{41000}

earning per share = $1.80

so here price earning ratio will be as

price earning ratio = \frac{market\ price\ common\ share}{earning\ per\ share}

price earning ratio = \frac{35}{1.80}

price earning ratio = 19.44 times

so correct option is c. 19.44

7 0
3 years ago
A company sold equipment that originally cost $100,000 for $60,000 cash. The accumulated depreciation on the equipment was $40,0
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

$0 Gain or Loss

Explanation:

Given that,

Original cost of the equipment = $100,000

Accumulated depreciation on the equipment = $40,000

Book value of the equipment:

= Original cost of the equipment - Accumulated depreciation on the equipment

= $100,000 - $40,000

= $60,000

Gain/Loss = Sale value - Book value of the equipment

                 = $60,000 - $60,000

                 = $0

Therefore, the company should recognize a $0 Gain or Loss.

7 0
3 years ago
Before going into a prospect's office, the secretary advised the new salesperson that her boss likes facts and figures and is su
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer: ANALYTICALS/ ANALYTICAL THINKERS

Explanation:

Analytical thinkers are known to use knowledge and facts to get to a decision. They prefer to know all they can about a subject before they comment on it and as such rarely jump to conclusions. They are usually introverted as well and prefer not to deal with others.

This is why it stands to reason that the prospect is an Analytical.

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
John Williams, manager of Phoenix Entertainment, wants to compute the variable overhead efficiency variance for the year. He has
jenyasd209 [6]

Answer:

$10,125 Favorable

Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base

Explanation:

Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity

Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)

Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)

Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750

Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable

Variable overhead spending variance is

Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base

4 0
3 years ago
The cost of perpetual preferred stock is found as the preferred's annual dividend divided by the market price of the preferred s
VikaD [51]
Answer: A


Preferred share dividends are distributions of profits and not interest payments. Thus not tax-deductible.
5 0
2 years ago
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