Answer:
16y -35
Step-by-step explanation:
10(y-3)+(6y-5)
10y-30+6y-5
10y+6y -30-5
16y -35
Because 42 is a multiple of 2
She started with her whole allowance - all 10/10 of it. After she spent 4/10, she was left with 10/10 - 4/10 = 6/10, and after spending another 5/10, she’ll finally be left with 6/10 - 5/10 = 1/10 of her allowance.