Answer:
2.28%
Explanation:
initial outlay = $119,000 + $12,000 = $131,000
cash flows 1 - 5 = $25,000
Re = 12%
rate of reinvestments = 8%
using a financial calculator, the MIRR = 2.28%
if you want to calculate MIRR manually, you must solve the following:
MIRR = ⁿ√(future value of cash flows at reinvested rate / present value of negative values discounted at financing rate) - 1
- n = 5
- future value of cash flows at reinvested rate = $25,000 x 5.8666 (FV annuity factor) = $146,665
- present value of negative cash flows = $131,000
MIRR = ⁵√($146,665 / $131,000) - 1 = 1.0228 - 1 = 0.0228 = 2.28%
You would most like find Strick Rules in a formal workplace
I believe that is the answer
Answer: A. The inability of a plant asset to meet its demands.
Explanation:
When something is said to be inadequate, it means that it is not in enough quantity or rather lacks the capacity to perform the tasks that it is needed for.
The same goes when this is being spoken in relation to an asset. A plant asset that is inadequate is unable to meet the demands that it was acquired for.
Answer:
t= 0.4138
Explanation:
First, we need to accommodate the information:
Sales= 10,000
COGS= 6000 (-)
Gross profit= 4000
Operating, selling, general and administrative expenses= 2300 (-)
Net operating income= 1700
Interest= 250 (-)
Earnings before taxes= 1450
TAX= 600 (-)
Net income= 850
t= ?
t= 600/1450= 0.4138