The formula
in solving the integral of the infinity of 3 is ∫3<span>∞?</span>(1<span>)÷((</span>x−2<span><span>)<span><span>(3/</span><span>2)</span></span></span>)</span><span>dx</span>
Substitute the numbers given
then solve
limn→inf∫3n(1/((n−2)(3/2))dn
limn→inf[−2/(n−2−−−−−√)−(−2/3−2−−−−√)
=0+2=2
Solve for the integral of 2 when 2 is approximate to 0.
Transpose 2 from the other side to make it -2
∫∞3(x−2)−3/2dx=(x−2)−1/2−1/2+C
(x−2)−1/2=1x−2−−−−√
0−(3−2)−1/2−1/2=2
<span> </span>
Answer:
Utiliza una cifra que pueda ser resultado de dividir 100:5 y eso a su vez nos dará el valor que debe aumentar en la escala
Answer:
6√5
Step-by-step explanation:
√15 x √12
=√3x √5 x 2 x √3
=3 x 2 x √5
=6 x √5
=6√5
Answer:
49
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the monomial y²-14y, in order to make the binomial a perfect square, we need to add a constant to the function using completing the square method.
To get the constant, we will multiply the coefficient of y by 1/2 and then square the resulting value.
- The coefficient of y is -14.
multiplying the coefficient of y by 1/2 will give -14/2 = -7
- squaring -7 will result in (-7)²
= 49
The constant that will be added to the binomial to make it a perfect square trinomial is 49
Ok well divide it by 5 ok
10:7 that is the most simplest form for this ratio! I hope you understand and if there are any other questions like this I would love to help!!!
